Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing pruritus. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer antihistamines as prescribed.
• B. Apply moisturizing lotion to the skin.
• C. Use cool water for bathing.
• D. Encourage a high-protein diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Administering antihistamines as prescribed is the appropriate intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing pruritus. Antihistamines can help reduce pruritus by blocking histamine receptors, which are often prescribed for such clients. Choice B, applying moisturizing lotion, may help with dry skin but will not directly address pruritus. Choice C, using cool water for bathing, may provide some relief but does not target the underlying cause of pruritus. Choice D, encouraging a high-protein diet, is not directly related to managing pruritus in chronic kidney disease.

2. A client with hypertension is being seen in a community clinic. The nurse notes that the client has not been taking their prescribed medication regularly. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?

• A. Educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
• B. Explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client
• C. Refer the client to a hypertension specialist
• D. Adjust the client's medication regimen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial intervention when a client is not adhering to prescribed medication is to explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client. Understanding the client's perspective can help identify barriers to adherence, such as side effects, cost, forgetfulness, or misunderstanding of the treatment. By addressing these reasons, the nurse can work collaboratively with the client to develop strategies to improve medication compliance. Educating the client on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after exploring the reasons for non-adherence. Referring the client to a hypertension specialist (Choice C) or adjusting the medication regimen (Choice D) should be considered after addressing the underlying reasons for non-adherence.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) to a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment is most important before initiating the infusion?

• A. Lung sounds and respiratory status.
• B. Skin integrity and color.
• C. Neurological status and level of consciousness.
• D. Cardiac rate and rhythm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Cardiac rate and rhythm." Monitoring cardiac rate and rhythm is crucial before initiating IVIG because bradycardia is a common side effect associated with this therapy. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory status (Choice A) is important, but cardiac monitoring takes precedence due to the risk of bradycardia. Skin integrity and color (Choice B) are important assessments, but they are not directly related to potential complications of IVIG infusion. Neurological status and level of consciousness (Choice C) are also vital assessments, but monitoring cardiac function is more pertinent in this scenario.

4. A public health nurse is assessing a community's readiness for a new smoking cessation program. Which factor is most important to evaluate?

• A. the community's smoking rates
• B. the availability of smoking cessation resources
• C. the community's attitude towards smoking
• D. the local healthcare providers' support for the program

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical factor to evaluate when assessing a community's readiness for a smoking cessation program is the community's attitude towards smoking. Understanding the community's perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors related to smoking is crucial as it helps determine the level of receptiveness and potential success of the program. Assessing smoking rates (Choice A) could provide valuable epidemiological data but may not reflect the community's readiness for change. While the availability of smoking cessation resources (Choice B) is important, without considering the community's attitude, the program's effectiveness may be limited. Local healthcare providers' support (Choice D) is valuable but secondary to the community's attitude, which directly influences the program's acceptance and impact.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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