the nurse is preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to an infant through an intermittent needle the nurse notes that the infant has not had a
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023

1. The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to an infant through an intermittent needle. The nurse notes that the infant has not had a wet diaper for several hours. The nurse will perform which action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant not having a wet diaper for several hours indicates a potential decrease in urine output, which can be a sign of nephrotoxicity related to gentamicin. The correct action for the nurse is to hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level. This is important to monitor the drug levels and ensure that they are not reaching toxic levels. Administering the medication without addressing the decreased urine output could potentially lead to further nephrotoxicity. Contacting the provider to add intravenous fluids or obtaining a serum peak drug level are not the most appropriate actions in this situation as the priority is to assess for potential nephrotoxicity and ensure patient safety.

2. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client for:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, assessing the client for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is crucial due to the risk of this serious complication. A CSF leak can lead to infection and increased intracranial pressure, which must be promptly identified and managed to prevent further complications. Fluctuating blood glucose levels (Choice B) are not directly associated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) is a condition related to prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and is not a common immediate concern post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cardiac arrhythmias (Choice D) are not typically a direct complication of this surgical procedure, making it a less relevant concern compared to a CSF leak.

3. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.

4. While assessing a female client who is chronically fatigued and was recently diagnosed with adrenal insufficiency, the client tells the nurse that she is very nervous that her hospitalization will cause her to lose her job. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention for the nurse is to offer support and care measures to reduce anxiety and stress. Addressing the client's emotional distress is crucial as the stress can exacerbate adrenal insufficiency. While teaching the client about the risk for infection (Choice A) is important, addressing the immediate emotional needs takes precedence. Encouraging the client to rest quietly (Choice C) is beneficial but does not directly address the client's current distress about job loss. Referring the client to social services (Choice D) for financial options is important, but at this moment, addressing the client's anxiety is the priority to promote emotional well-being.

5. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of 'visual sensory/perceptual alterations.' This problem is based on which etiology?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Decreased peripheral vision.' Open-angle glaucoma leads to a gradual loss of peripheral vision due to damage to the optic nerve. This loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of the condition and a primary reason for the visual sensory/perceptual alterations experienced by the client. Blurred distance vision (choice A) may occur but is not the priority nursing problem. Limited eye movement (choice B) and photosensitivity (choice D) are not typically associated with the sensory/perceptual alterations seen in open-angle glaucoma.

Similar Questions

An obese client with emphysema who smoked at least a pack of cigarettes daily is admitted after experiencing a sudden increase in dyspnea and activity intolerance. Oxygen therapy is initiated, and it is determined that the client will be discharged with oxygen. Which information is most important for the nurse to emphasize in the discharge teaching plan?
A client admitted from a nursing home after several recent falls needs a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. What should the nurse complete first?
To help minimize the risk of postoperative respiratory complications after a hypophysectomy, during preoperative teaching, the nurse should instruct the client how to:
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