HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client tells the clinic nurse about experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that the client had sexual intercourse four days ago with a person who was casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion
- B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture
- C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation
- D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a urethral drainage specimen for culture is crucial in diagnosing a potential sexually transmitted infection (STI) in this client. While assessing for perineal symptoms like itching, erythema, and excoriation (Choice C) may provide additional information, obtaining a culture is more definitive. Observing for a chancroid-like lesion (Choice A) is not as pertinent as obtaining a culture for a broader diagnostic approach. Identifying all sexual partners in the last four days (Choice D) is important for contact tracing but obtaining a specimen for culture takes priority in this scenario.
2. A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating:
- A. Improvement in the client
- B. The need for antiretroviral therapy
- C. The need to discontinue antiretroviral therapy
- D. An effective response to the treatment for HIV
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A CD4+ count of 450 cells/L is below the normal range (500-1600 cells/mcL), indicating a decline in immune function in the client. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count falls below 500 cells/mcL or below 25%, or when the client displays symptoms of HIV. Therefore, the interpretation of this test result suggests that the client requires antiretroviral therapy to manage the HIV infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L does not signify improvement, discontinuation of therapy, or an effective response to treatment for HIV.
3. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:
- A. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation.
- B. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes.
- C. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels.
- D. Determining how long the client can walk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.
4. What discharge instruction is most important for a client after a kidney transplant?
- A. Weigh weekly.
- B. Report symptoms of secondary Candidiasis.
- C. Use daily reminders to take immunosuppressants.
- D. Stop cigarette smoking.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a kidney transplant, it is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed immunosuppressive therapy to prevent organ rejection. The client must take medications like corticosteroids and azathioprine (Imuran) regularly for the rest of their life. Using daily reminders is essential to ensure compliance with the medication regimen, as missing doses can increase the risk of organ rejection. Weighing weekly, reporting symptoms of secondary Candidiasis, and stopping cigarette smoking are important aspects of post-transplant care but may not be as critical as ensuring proper intake of immunosuppressants to prevent rejection.
5. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is being discharged. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Take your blood pressure every morning.
- B. Weigh yourself at the same time each day.
- C. Contact your provider if you have visual disturbances.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) should be educated on monitoring their blood pressure daily and weighing themselves consistently to detect any changes promptly. It is essential to contact the healthcare provider if visual disturbances occur, as this could indicate a complication such as a berry aneurysm associated with PKD. Foul-smelling or bloody urine should also prompt notification to the provider as they could signify urinary tract infections or glomerular injury. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they address crucial aspects of managing PKD and its potential complications. Choices A and B help in monitoring for changes in blood pressure and fluid status, while choice C focuses on detecting possible neurological complications. Choices A, B, and C are relevant to PKD management and should be included in the client's discharge teaching. Choices that mention diarrhea and renal stones are not directly associated with PKD; therefore, teaching related to these conditions would be irrelevant in this context.
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