HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client tells the clinic nurse about experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that the client had sexual intercourse four days ago with a person who was casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion
- B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture
- C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation
- D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a urethral drainage specimen for culture is crucial in diagnosing a potential sexually transmitted infection (STI) in this client. While assessing for perineal symptoms like itching, erythema, and excoriation (Choice C) may provide additional information, obtaining a culture is more definitive. Observing for a chancroid-like lesion (Choice A) is not as pertinent as obtaining a culture for a broader diagnostic approach. Identifying all sexual partners in the last four days (Choice D) is important for contact tracing but obtaining a specimen for culture takes priority in this scenario.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of an antibiotic to a patient admitted for a urinary tract infection. Which action is most important prior to administering the antibiotic?
- A. Administering a small test dose to determine if hypersensitivity exists
- B. Having epinephrine available in case of a severe hypersensitivity reaction
- C. Monitoring baseline vital signs, including temperature and blood pressure
- D. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial action before administering an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection is to obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity. This ensures the accurate identification of the causative organism and helps determine the most effective antibiotic therapy. Administering a test dose to detect hypersensitivity is usually reserved for cases with a strong suspicion of allergy to a needed antibiotic. Keeping epinephrine available is important when there is a significant risk of a severe allergic reaction. Monitoring baseline vital signs is essential during antibiotic therapy but is not the top priority before administering the first dose.
3. A client is getting out of bed for the first time since surgery. The client complains of dizziness after the nurse raises the head of the bed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Checking the client’s blood pressure
- B. Checking the oxygen saturation level
- C. Having the client take some deep breaths
- D. Lowering the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences dizziness after being positioned upright for the first time post-surgery, the initial action the nurse should take is to lower the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness subsides. This maneuver helps alleviate the dizziness by allowing the body to adapt gradually to the change in position. Subsequently, the nurse should assess the client's pulse and blood pressure. Checking the blood pressure is essential to evaluate the circulatory status and rule out orthostatic hypotension as a cause of dizziness. Checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take deep breaths are not the priority in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the circulatory issue causing dizziness, not a respiratory problem.
4. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of oral clindamycin (Cleocin) to a patient being treated for a skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The patient has experienced nausea after several doses. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Administer the next dose when the patient has an empty stomach.
- B. Hold the next dose and contact the patient’s provider.
- C. Instruct the patient to take the next dose with a full glass of water.
- D. Request an order for an antacid to give along with the next dose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to instruct the patient to take the next dose of clindamycin with a full glass of water. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal (GI) irritation such as nausea, vomiting, and stomatitis that the patient has been experiencing. Administering the medication on an empty stomach would likely worsen the GI upset. Holding the next dose and contacting the provider is not necessary at this point unless symptoms persist or worsen. Additionally, requesting an antacid is not indicated as the primary intervention for managing the nausea related to clindamycin.
5. What is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia that the nurse should teach the diabetic client to recognize?
- A. Nervousness
- B. Anorexia
- C. Kussmaul's respirations
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nervousness is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia. It is often accompanied by other signs such as weakness, perspiration, confusion, and palpitations. Anorexia (lack of appetite) is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia; it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Kussmaul's respirations are a deep and labored breathing pattern seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not hypoglycemia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia; tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia due to the release of catecholamines in response to low blood sugar.
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