a client has just undergone lumbar puncture into which position does the nurse assist the client after the procedure
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. After a lumbar puncture, into which position does the nurse assist the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, the client should be positioned flat. This position helps prevent post-procedure spinal headaches and cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Keeping the client flat for up to 12 hours is crucial in minimizing these risks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the head of the bed or sitting up can increase the risk of complications by altering the pressure in the spinal canal, potentially leading to headaches and fluid leakage.

2. After the administration of t-PA, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After the administration of t-PA, the nurse should observe the client for chest pain. Chest pain post t-PA administration could indicate reocclusion of the coronary artery, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring for fever (choice B) is not specifically associated with t-PA administration. While reviewing the 12-lead ECG (choice C) is important for assessing cardiac function, it may not be the immediate priority right after t-PA administration. Auscultating breath sounds (choice D) is important for assessing respiratory status but is not the most crucial assessment following t-PA administration.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). To monitor the patient's response and prevent adverse effects, the healthcare professional should request coagulation studies, such as International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels. Choosing a decreased dose of TMP-SMX would not address the potential drug interaction between TMP-SMX and warfarin. Opting for a different antibiotic is not necessary if the interaction can be managed by monitoring. Increasing the dose of warfarin without monitoring could lead to excessive anticoagulation and adverse events, so it's not the appropriate action in this scenario.

4. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.

5. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is the most important indicator of respiratory function?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The peak expiratory flow rate is the most important indicator of respiratory function in asthma because it measures how quickly air can be exhaled, reflecting the severity of airflow limitation. Oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important in assessing oxygenation, but it does not directly reflect respiratory function. Respiratory rate (Choice B) can provide information on breathing patterns but does not quantify airflow limitation. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) give information about gas exchange but are not as specific for assessing asthma control and severity as peak expiratory flow rate.

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