Nursing Elites

1. After a lumbar puncture, into which position does the nurse assist the client?

• A. Flat
• B. Semi-Fowler
• C. Side-lying with the head of the bed elevated
• D. Sitting up in a recliner with the feet elevated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, the client should be positioned flat. This position helps prevent post-procedure spinal headaches and cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Keeping the client flat for up to 12 hours is crucial in minimizing these risks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the head of the bed or sitting up can increase the risk of complications by altering the pressure in the spinal canal, potentially leading to headaches and fluid leakage.

2. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?

• A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
• B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
• C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
• D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.

3. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
• B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
• C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
• D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.

4. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administering bronchodilators.
• B. Administering antibiotics.
• C. Administering IV fluids.
• D. Administering corticosteroids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.

5. A client is being prepared for transfer to the operating room. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in the care of this client at this time?

• A. Ensuring that the client has voided
• B. Administering all daily medications
• C. Practicing postoperative breathing exercises
• D. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should ensure that the client has voided, especially if a Foley catheter is not in place. This step is important to prevent urinary retention during the surgical procedure. Administering all daily medications just before surgery is not standard practice. The physician typically provides specific orders regarding which medications can be taken with a sip of water before surgery. Postoperative breathing exercises are usually taught after surgery to prevent complications like atelectasis. Verifying that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours is not a standard preoperative practice; instead, the client is usually instructed to fast for a specific period before surgery to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia.

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