the nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who is newly admitted to the intensive care unit the nurse reviews the patients admission el
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam

1. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who is newly admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse reviews the patient’s admission electrolytes and notes a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action by the nurse is correct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient has a low serum potassium level, which can predispose the patient to digoxin toxicity. It is essential for the nurse to hold the digoxin dose and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal lab values. Option A is incorrect because administering digoxin without addressing the low potassium level can potentiate toxicity. Option C is inappropriate as potassium should not be given as an IV bolus, especially in the case of hypokalemia. Option D is incorrect because oral potassium supplements may not be sufficient for rapidly correcting severe hypokalemia in an acute care setting.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have blood drawn for a fasting blood glucose determination in the morning. What does the nurse tell the client is acceptable to consume on the morning of the test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Water. A client scheduled for a fasting blood glucose test should only consume water after midnight to ensure accurate test results. Choosing options B, C, or D, which include tea, coffee, or clear liquids like apple juice, is incorrect as they may contain substances that can affect the blood glucose levels, leading to inaccurate test results.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.

4. Oxygen via nasal cannula has been prescribed for a client with emphysema. The nurse checks the physician’s orders to ensure that the prescribed flow is not greater than:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 3 L/min. Clients with emphysema typically receive oxygen at a flow rate of 1 to 2 L/min, with a maximum of 3 L/min. Higher flow rates can lead to oxygen toxicity in these clients, so it's crucial to adhere to the prescribed limits. Choice A (1 L/min) is too low and may not provide adequate oxygenation for the client. Choices C (4 L/min) and D (6 L/min) exceed the recommended flow rates for clients with emphysema and can increase the risk of oxygen toxicity.

5. The nurse is taking the vital signs of a client after hemodialysis. Blood pressure is 110/58 mm Hg, pulse 66 beats/min, and temperature is 99.8°F (37.6°C). What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is crucial to monitor the client's temperature because the dialysate is warmed to increase diffusion and prevent hypothermia. The client's temperature might reflect the temperature of the dialysate. There is no need to administer fluids to increase blood pressure as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the white blood cell count or connecting the client to an ECG monitor is not necessary based on the information provided.

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