HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?
- A. Frequent urinary tract infections.
- B. Inability to get pregnant.
- C. Premenstrual syndrome.
- D. Chronic use of laxatives.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Inability to get pregnant.' The symptoms described in the client's complaints, which include severe abdominal pain before menstruation, painful intercourse, and painful defecation, are indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition characterized by the abnormal presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, commonly leading to infertility. While choices A, C, and D may be associated with other conditions, they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client, making them incorrect choices. Frequent urinary tract infections may suggest a different issue, premenstrual syndrome does not typically present with severe abdominal pain, and chronic use of laxatives is not a typical symptom of endometriosis.
2. The healthcare provider caring for a patient who will receive penicillin to treat an infection asks the patient about previous drug reactions. The patient reports having had a rash when taking amoxicillin (Amoxil). The healthcare provider will contact the provider to
- A. discuss giving a smaller dose of penicillin.
- B. discuss using erythromycin (E-mycin) instead of penicillin.
- C. request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- D. suggest that the patient receive cefuroxime (Ceftin).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient reports a previous rash with amoxicillin, which is a type of penicillin, there is a concern for a penicillin allergy. In such cases, using an alternative antibiotic like erythromycin, which is not a penicillin, is the appropriate approach to avoid potential cross-reactivity and allergic reactions. Giving smaller doses of penicillin does not address the underlying allergy issue and can still lead to severe hypersensitivity reactions. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used to manage allergic reactions but should not be the first choice in changing the antibiotic. While some patients allergic to penicillins may also be allergic to cephalosporins like cefuroxime, it is not the best immediate alternative in this scenario.
3. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
- A. White blood count of 10,000/mm³.
- B. Serum glucose of 115 mg/dL.
- C. Purulent sputum.
- D. Excessive hunger.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.
4. The patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which potential electrolyte imbalance will the nurse monitor for in this patient?
- A. Hypermagnesemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the effects of digoxin, leading to digoxin toxicity. Thiazides can also cause hypercalcemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hypernatremia and hypocalcemia are not the primary electrolyte imbalances to monitor for in this scenario.
5. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Position the head of the bed (HOB) flat.
- B. Withhold intravenous fluids.
- C. Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
- D. Give an antihypertensive medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.
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