Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus who is taking NPH insulin (Humulin N) in the evening is most likely to become hypoglycemic shortly after midnight because this insulin peaks in 6 to 8 hours. What intervention should the nurse recommend to help prevent hypoglycemia while the client is sleeping?

• A. Eat a bedtime snack.
• B. Avoid physical activity.
• C. Take half the usual dose of insulin.
• D. Discontinue insulin until the next meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Eating a bedtime snack is the most appropriate intervention to prevent hypoglycemia during the night when NPH insulin peaks. This snack helps maintain blood glucose levels and counteracts the risk of hypoglycemia. Avoiding physical activity is not recommended as it can further lower blood sugar levels. Taking half the usual dose of insulin can lead to inadequate control of blood sugar levels. Discontinuing insulin until the next meal can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia, especially during the peak action of NPH insulin.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is known to increase blood pressure by stimulating red blood cell production. Monitoring for hypertension is crucial to prevent complications such as heart failure or stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, hyperglycemia, and edema are not typically associated with epoetin alfa therapy in clients with chronic renal failure.

3. When assessing an individual with peripheral vascular disease, which clinical manifestation would indicate complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg?

• A. Aching pain in the left calf.
• B. Burning pain in the left calf.
• C. Numbness and tingling in the left leg.
• D. Coldness of the left foot and ankle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coldness of the left foot and ankle is the correct clinical manifestation indicating complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg. Complete arterial obstruction results in reduced blood flow, leading to decreased temperature in the affected area. Aching pain (Choice A) and burning pain (Choice B) are more commonly associated with partial obstructions or ischemia, while numbness and tingling (Choice C) can be indicative of nerve involvement or compromised circulation, but not specifically complete arterial obstruction. The coldness in the foot and ankle is a result of severely reduced blood flow, which impairs the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues in that area, leading to a lower temperature. This symptom is a critical indicator of a more severe blockage compared to the other options provided.

4. Blood for arterial blood gas determinations is drawn from a client with pneumonia, and testing reveals a pH of 7.45, PCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 19 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as indicative of:

• A. Compensated metabolic acidosis
• B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
• C. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
• D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis.' In this case, the client's pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating compensation. The low PCO2 (30 mm Hg) suggests respiratory alkalosis, while the low HCO3 (19 mEq/L) is also consistent with a compensatory response. Therefore, the client has a primary respiratory alkalosis that is being compensated for by metabolic acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fit the pattern of the given blood gas values, which indicate respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 62, PaCO2 59, and HCO3. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both the PaO2 and the PaCO2?

• A. The hypercapnia resulted from the rapid respirations.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client had a pneumothorax which restricted ventilation.
• D. The client had a pulmonary embolism that reduced perfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with COPD, oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive, which is the primary stimulus for breathing in these individuals. By providing supplemental oxygen, the hypoxic drive is diminished, resulting in decreased respiratory effort. As a consequence, the PaO2 may increase due to the supplemental oxygen, but this can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive and subsequent retention of carbon dioxide, causing an increase in PaCO2 levels. Option A is incorrect because rapid respirations would typically lower PaCO2 levels. Option C is incorrect as a pneumothorax would lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased PaO2 levels without necessarily affecting PaCO2 levels. Option D is incorrect as a pulmonary embolism would typically result in ventilation-perfusion mismatch and decreased PaO2 levels without directly impacting PaCO2 levels.

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