HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. The nurse is planning care for an older adult client who experienced a cerebrovascular accident several weeks ago. The client has expressive aphasia and often becomes frustrated with the nursing staff. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Teach the client the use of basic sign language
- B. Speak slowly to the client
- C. Encourage the client's use of picture charts
- D. Ask the client simple questions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client's use of picture charts is the most appropriate intervention for a client with expressive aphasia. Picture charts provide visual cues that can aid in communication and reduce frustration for the client. This intervention can help the client express their needs and thoughts effectively. Teaching sign language (Choice A) may be challenging and not as practical in this situation as it may not address the specific communication barriers caused by expressive aphasia. Speaking slowly (Choice B) may not fully address the communication difficulties associated with expressive aphasia. Asking simple questions (Choice D) may not be effective as the client may have difficulty understanding and responding due to the nature of expressive aphasia.
2. The patient about to undergo gynecological surgery is put on nil by mouth for ____ before surgery to prevent aspiration.
- A. 2-4 hours
- B. 3-5 hours
- C. 4-6 hours
- D. 5-7 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients undergoing gynecological surgery are typically advised to be nil by mouth for 4-6 hours before the procedure to reduce the risk of aspiration. This duration allows the stomach to empty its contents, decreasing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of stomach contents during surgery. Choices A, B, and D have shorter durations and may not provide sufficient time for adequate gastric emptying, increasing the risk of aspiration.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Administer insulin immediately
- B. Consume 15 grams of simple carbohydrates
- C. Drink plenty of water
- D. Avoid eating until symptoms resolve
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiences hypoglycemia, the nurse should instruct them to consume 15 grams of simple carbohydrates. This is the recommended initial treatment for hypoglycemia as it helps quickly raise blood sugar levels to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications. Administering insulin immediately (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, worsening the hypoglycemia. Drinking plenty of water (Choice C) and avoiding eating until symptoms resolve (Choice D) are not appropriate actions for treating hypoglycemia as they do not address the immediate need to raise blood sugar levels.
4. A male client with schizophrenia is socially reclusive and pacing in the hallway. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
- B. Encourage the client to rest.
- C. Plan an activity that includes physical exercise.
- D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. In this situation, the client's behavior suggests agitation and restlessness, which could potentially escalate. Observation is crucial to monitor any changes in behavior, assess for signs of distress, and ensure the client's safety. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for managing the client's behavior. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) might not be effective if the client is highly agitated. Planning an activity that includes physical exercise (Choice C) could exacerbate the situation rather than address the current behavior. Therefore, the priority is to observe the client closely to provide appropriate support and intervention as needed.
5. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
- B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
- C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
- D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.