a nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1018 which action should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A client presents with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Therefore, the appropriate action is to document this finding in the client's chart and continue monitoring. There is no need to evaluate intake and output, as the specific gravity is normal. Obtaining a urine culture and sensitivity or encouraging increased fluid intake is unnecessary in this situation.

2. A client who is anxious about an impending surgery is at risk for respiratory alkalosis. For which signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis does the nurse assess this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias. When a client is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to respiratory alkalosis. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is a common sign of respiratory alkalosis. Dizziness and paresthesias (tingling or numbness in the extremities) are also typical symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Disorientation and dyspnea (Choice A) are not specific signs of respiratory alkalosis. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea (Choice B) may be more indicative of other conditions. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth (Choice D) are not consistent with the expected signs of respiratory alkalosis.

3. A client has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L, a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL, and a urine output of 350 mL/day. What is the best action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best immediate action by the nurse in this situation is to place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Monitoring the cardiac status is crucial to detect any potential arrhythmias promptly. Teaching the client to limit high-potassium foods (Choice B) may be important for long-term management, but it is not the priority at this moment. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice C) is important for assessing renal function but does not address the immediate risk of dysrhythmias. Asking to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen (Choice D) is unnecessary since the current results indicate a critical situation that requires immediate action.

4. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about dietary restrictions by the nurse. Which of the following food items should the client avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which should be limited in clients with chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples (choice A), chicken (choice C), and rice (choice D) are not typically restricted in clients with chronic renal failure. Apples and rice are lower in potassium, while chicken is a good source of lean protein, which is usually encouraged in these clients to meet their protein needs without excess potassium intake.

5. A nurse cares for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, “I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child’s bladder.” How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should accept and acknowledge the client’s concerns, and assist the client to learn techniques that will allow control of urinary incontinence. The nurse should not diminish the client’s concerns with the use of pads or stating statistics about the occurrence of incontinence.

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