HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client presents with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Evaluate the client’s intake and output for the past 24 hours.
- B. Document the finding in the chart and continue to monitor.
- C. Obtain a specimen for a urine culture and sensitivity.
- D. Encourage the client to drink more fluids, especially water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Therefore, the appropriate action is to document this finding in the client's chart and continue monitoring. There is no need to evaluate intake and output, as the specific gravity is normal. Obtaining a urine culture and sensitivity or encouraging increased fluid intake is unnecessary in this situation.
2. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Excessive GFR
- B. Reduced GFR
- C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.
3. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client for:
- A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
- B. Fluctuating blood glucose levels.
- C. Cushing's syndrome.
- D. Cardiac arrhythmias.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, assessing the client for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is crucial due to the risk of this serious complication. A CSF leak can lead to infection and increased intracranial pressure, which must be promptly identified and managed to prevent further complications. Fluctuating blood glucose levels (Choice B) are not directly associated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) is a condition related to prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and is not a common immediate concern post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cardiac arrhythmias (Choice D) are not typically a direct complication of this surgical procedure, making it a less relevant concern compared to a CSF leak.
4. A client is getting out of bed for the first time since surgery. The client complains of dizziness after the nurse raises the head of the bed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Checking the client’s blood pressure
- B. Checking the oxygen saturation level
- C. Having the client take some deep breaths
- D. Lowering the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences dizziness after being positioned upright for the first time post-surgery, the initial action the nurse should take is to lower the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness subsides. This maneuver helps alleviate the dizziness by allowing the body to adapt gradually to the change in position. Subsequently, the nurse should assess the client's pulse and blood pressure. Checking the blood pressure is essential to evaluate the circulatory status and rule out orthostatic hypotension as a cause of dizziness. Checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take deep breaths are not the priority in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the circulatory issue causing dizziness, not a respiratory problem.
5. Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?
- A. Inflamed and painful joints.
- B. Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
- C. Stooped posture.
- D. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL (90 g/L).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which is a common complication of diabetes mellitus due to atherosclerotic changes. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases, which are prevalent in individuals with diabetes. Inflamed and painful joints (Choice A) are not directly related to diabetes complications but may be seen in conditions like arthritis. Stooped posture (Choice C) is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues like osteoporosis, not necessarily a typical complication of diabetes. Hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL (90 g/L) (Choice D) could signify anemia, which can occur in diabetes but is not a primary complication often associated with the disease.
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