a nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1018 which action should the nurse take
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HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A client presents with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Therefore, the appropriate action is to document this finding in the client's chart and continue monitoring. There is no need to evaluate intake and output, as the specific gravity is normal. Obtaining a urine culture and sensitivity or encouraging increased fluid intake is unnecessary in this situation.

2. Which of the following is a common cause of acute kidney injury?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infection is a common cause of acute kidney injury because when the body fights an infection, it activates the immune response, leading to inflammation. This inflammatory response can affect the kidneys and impair their function. While hypertension (choice A) is a risk factor for chronic kidney disease, it is not a direct cause of acute kidney injury. Dehydration (choice B) can lead to prerenal acute kidney injury due to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, but infection is a more common cause of acute kidney injury. Hypotension (choice D) can contribute to prerenal acute kidney injury, but it is not a direct cause like infection.

3. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.

4. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.

5. After teaching a client with early polycystic kidney disease (PKD) about nutritional therapy, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Clients with PKD often experience constipation, which can be managed by increasing their intake of dietary fiber and fluids. This helps promote bowel regularity. Laxatives should be used cautiously and not as a routine solution. Choice A is incorrect as regular laxative use is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as a low-salt diet is typically advised for clients with PKD, not just limiting salt while cooking. Choice D is incorrect as white bread is low in fiber and not beneficial for managing constipation, which is common in PKD.

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