Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to:

• A. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
• B. Remove all metal and jewelry before the test
• C. Expect diarrhea for a few days after the procedure
• D. Take all oral medications as scheduled with milk on the day of the test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove all metal and jewelry before the test.' Before a barium swallow procedure, the client should fast for 8 to 12 hours to ensure the stomach and intestines are empty for optimal visualization. Removing all metal and jewelry is essential to prevent any interference with x-ray imaging. Choice A is incorrect because the client should fast, not eat supper and breakfast, before the test. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea is not an expected outcome of a barium swallow. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not take any oral medications with milk on the day of the test to ensure accurate test results.

2. What is the most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. Heartburn.
• B. Nausea.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heartburn. Heartburn is the most common symptom of GERD as it occurs due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This leads to a burning sensation in the chest that can worsen after eating, lying down, or bending over. Choice B, Nausea, is not typically the most common symptom of GERD, although it can occur in some cases. Choice C, Abdominal pain, is not a primary symptom of GERD and is more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions. Choice D, Vomiting, is also not the most common symptom of GERD, although it can occur in severe cases or as a result of complications.

3. Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?

• A. Inflamed and painful joints.
• B. Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
• C. Stooped posture.
• D. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL (90 g/L).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which is a common complication of diabetes mellitus due to atherosclerotic changes. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases, which are prevalent in individuals with diabetes. Inflamed and painful joints (Choice A) are not directly related to diabetes complications but may be seen in conditions like arthritis. Stooped posture (Choice C) is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues like osteoporosis, not necessarily a typical complication of diabetes. Hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL (90 g/L) (Choice D) could signify anemia, which can occur in diabetes but is not a primary complication often associated with the disease.

4. A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet?

• A. He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot.
• B. He is provided with the most current information about the dangers of untreated diabetes.
• C. He comments on the community service announcements about preventing complications associated with diabetes.
• D. His wife expresses a sincere willingness to prepare meals that are within his prescribed diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the Health Belief Model, the most effective event to increase compliance with the prescribed diet for a middle-aged male client with diabetes is experiencing a significant consequence related to the disease. In this case, visiting his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot would serve as a strong 'cue to action,' increasing the client's perceived seriousness of the disease. This event is likely to have a more immediate and impactful effect on the client than other options. Option B provides valuable information but may not have the same personal and emotional impact as witnessing a severe consequence firsthand. Option C involves indirect exposure to prevention messages, which might not be as compelling as a direct experience. Option D, while supportive, does not present a direct consequence of non-compliance like option A does.

5. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?

• A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
• B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
• C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
• D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.

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