Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following should be the nurse's first priority?

• A. The client will maintain adequate nutrition.
• B. The client will manage side effects of treatment.
• C. The client will recognize signs and symptoms of infection.
• D. The client will experience a reduction in pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Recognizing signs and symptoms of infection should be the nurse's first priority when developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often compromises the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Early identification and prompt treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but recognizing signs of infection takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening consequences in clients undergoing chemotherapy treatment.

2. What is the primary purpose of the logrolling technique for turning?

• A. To decrease the risk of back injury by working together.
• B. To maintain straight spinal alignment.
• C. To increase client safety by using two or three people.
• D. To reduce the likelihood of skin damage by turning instead of pulling.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To maintain straight spinal alignment. Logrolling is a technique used to carefully turn a client while keeping the spine in a straight line, especially important for those with spinal injuries or after back surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose is not specifically to decrease the risk of back injury but to ensure safe turning. Choice C is incorrect as the main aim is not to increase client safety by using multiple people but to protect the spine. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of logrolling is not to prevent skin damage but to safeguard the spine during turning.

3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with asthma. Which statement indicates the client understands how to use a rescue inhaler?

• A. I will use my rescue inhaler every morning to prevent asthma attacks.
• B. I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.
• C. I will use my rescue inhaler when my peak flow meter reading is in the green zone.
• D. I will only use my rescue inhaler before going to bed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.' A rescue inhaler is used during the onset of asthma symptoms, such as wheezing, to quickly open the airways. It is not intended for routine daily use or prevention, which is the role of a maintenance inhaler. Option A is incorrect because a rescue inhaler is not used for prevention but for immediate relief during an asthma attack. Option C is incorrect because the peak flow meter reading is used to monitor asthma control, not to determine when to use a rescue inhaler. Option D is incorrect because using a rescue inhaler only before going to bed does not address the need for immediate relief when wheezing or experiencing asthma symptoms.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

5. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client. Which instruction is most important to include in this plan?

• A. Ensure daily follow-up with the healthcare provider
• B. Take immunosuppressant medications as prescribed
• C. Avoid crowds for the first two months after surgery
• D. Return to work in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a liver transplant client is to take immunosuppressant medications as prescribed. This is vital to prevent organ rejection and ensure the success of the transplant. While ensuring daily follow-up with the healthcare provider is important for monitoring progress, avoiding crowds for the first two months after surgery helps reduce the risk of infections but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Returning to work in three months is a consideration but not the most important aspect immediately post-transplant.

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