Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following should be the nurse's first priority?

• A. The client will maintain adequate nutrition.
• B. The client will manage side effects of treatment.
• C. The client will recognize signs and symptoms of infection.
• D. The client will experience a reduction in pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Recognizing signs and symptoms of infection should be the nurse's first priority when developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often compromises the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Early identification and prompt treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but recognizing signs of infection takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening consequences in clients undergoing chemotherapy treatment.

2. A client with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is admitted with chest pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
• C. Check the client's vital signs.
• D. Place the client on continuous telemetry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). This action is crucial in assessing the heart's electrical activity and helps in the evaluation of chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after obtaining the ECG to confirm the diagnosis. Checking vital signs (Choice C) is important but does not provide direct information about the heart's electrical status. Placing the client on continuous telemetry (Choice D) may be appropriate later but does not provide immediate information on the heart's electrical activity as an ECG does.

3. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

4. The nurse is preparing an older adult for discharge following cataract extraction. What is the most important instruction?

• A. Avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects.
• B. Limit exposure to sunlight for the first 2 weeks.
• C. Use direct lighting when reading for 6 weeks.
• D. Irrigate the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important instruction for a patient following cataract extraction is to avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects. These activities can increase intraocular pressure and potentially lead to complications such as bleeding or dislocation of the intraocular lens. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-operative period. Limiting sunlight exposure and using direct lighting when reading are important but not as crucial as avoiding activities that can increase intraocular pressure. Irrigating the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment is not a standard post-cataract surgery instruction.

5. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

• A. Mild impairment
• B. Moderate impairment
• C. Severe impairment
• D. Normal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

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