Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following should be the nurse's first priority?

• A. The client will maintain adequate nutrition.
• B. The client will manage side effects of treatment.
• C. The client will recognize signs and symptoms of infection.
• D. The client will experience a reduction in pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Recognizing signs and symptoms of infection should be the nurse's first priority when developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often compromises the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Early identification and prompt treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but recognizing signs of infection takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening consequences in clients undergoing chemotherapy treatment.

2. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section, the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Cancel the surgery
• B. Inform the anesthesia care provider
• C. Ask the client if she has had any other liquids
• D. Proceed with routine preparations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drinking liquids before surgery can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Therefore, the anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately to determine how to proceed, as this could delay or alter the surgical plan. Canceling the surgery without consulting the anesthesia care provider would be premature and could potentially lead to unnecessary actions. Asking the client if she has had any other liquids is important but not the first priority. Proceeding with routine preparations without addressing the potential issue of ingesting liquids before surgery could compromise the client's safety.

3. A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's best intervention to manage these symptoms?

• A. Offer frequent, small meals
• B. Administer antiemetics before meals
• C. Encourage the client to eat a high-fat diet
• D. Provide the client with cold, carbonated beverages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering antiemetics before meals is the best intervention to manage nausea and vomiting in clients receiving chemotherapy. This proactive approach helps control symptoms by preventing nausea from occurring, rather than waiting to treat it once symptoms have already started. Offering frequent, small meals (choice A) may worsen symptoms in some cases due to increased stomach activity. Encouraging a high-fat diet (choice C) can be difficult for nauseated clients and may not alleviate symptoms. Providing cold, carbonated beverages (choice D) could exacerbate nausea further due to the temperature and carbonation.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?

• A. Encourage a diet low in carbohydrates and fats.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach and kale.
• C. Increase salt intake to prevent dehydration.
• D. Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.' Thiazide diuretics can lead to potassium loss, so it is essential for clients to consume potassium-rich foods to maintain adequate levels. Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on low carbohydrates and fats does not address the specific issue of potassium loss. Choice B is unrelated as vitamin K content is not a concern with thiazide diuretics. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake would exacerbate hypertension and not prevent dehydration.

5. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

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