Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following should be the nurse's first priority?

• A. The client will maintain adequate nutrition.
• B. The client will manage side effects of treatment.
• C. The client will recognize signs and symptoms of infection.
• D. The client will experience a reduction in pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Recognizing signs and symptoms of infection should be the nurse's first priority when developing a teaching plan for a client receiving chemotherapy. Chemotherapy often compromises the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Early identification and prompt treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but recognizing signs of infection takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening consequences in clients undergoing chemotherapy treatment.

2. A client tells the nurse about working out with a personal trainer and swimming three times a week in an effort to lose weight and sleep better. The client states that it still takes hours to fall asleep at night. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Advise the client to reduce exercise intensity
• B. Ask the client for a description of the exercise schedule that is being followed
• C. Encourage the client to try relaxation techniques before bed
• D. Suggest avoiding water-based exercise before bed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client for a description of the exercise schedule being followed is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario. Understanding the timing and intensity of the client's exercise routine can help identify if the activity is contributing to sleep disturbances. Exercise too close to bedtime can cause difficulty falling asleep. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the need to assess the exercise schedule and may not provide the necessary information to identify the potential cause of the client's sleep issue.

3. The nurse is administering an intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test. Which technique should the nurse use?

• A. Use a 25-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
• B. Use a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle
• C. Use a 22-gauge needle at a 45-degree angle
• D. Use a 20-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test should be administered using a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered into the dermis layer of the skin. Choice A is incorrect because a 25-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection. Choice C is incorrect as a 22-gauge needle is also too large and the angle is too steep for an intradermal injection. Choice D is incorrect as a 20-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection, and a 90-degree angle would not deliver the medication accurately into the dermis.

4. The nurse is caring for a client post-surgery with an order to ambulate the client every 2 hours. Which of the following tasks could be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Assessing the client's ability to ambulate safely
• B. Documenting the client's tolerance of ambulation
• C. Assisting the client with ambulation
• D. Evaluating the client's pain level after ambulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting with ambulation is a task that can be safely delegated to a UAP as it is a supportive activity that does not require clinical judgment. Choices A, B, and D involve assessments, documentation, and evaluation, which require nursing knowledge and clinical judgment, making them tasks that should be performed by a licensed nurse.

5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The client is prescribed intravenous antibiotics and oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Increased white blood cell count
• B. Crackles heard on lung auscultation
• C. Productive cough with green sputum
• D. Decreased respiratory rate from 24 to 18 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate indicates that the client's breathing is becoming more stable, which suggests an improvement in their condition. Respiratory rate is a critical indicator of respiratory status and oxygenation. Increased white blood cell count (choice A) suggests ongoing infection, crackles on lung auscultation (choice B) indicate fluid in the lungs, and productive cough with green sputum (choice C) may indicate persistent infection or airway inflammation, which do not necessarily reflect improvement in pneumonia.

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