Nursing Elites

1. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is:

• A. difference in the intake and output
• B. changes in the mucous membranes
• C. skin turgor
• D. weekly weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with altered renal function, monitoring fluid balance is crucial. Weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the visits as it reflects cumulative changes in the body's fluid status. Changes in intake and output (Choice A) can provide valuable information, but weekly weight is a more direct measure of overall fluid retention or loss. Changes in mucous membranes (Choice B) and skin turgor (Choice C) can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less reliable indicators in this context.

2. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

• A. administer the medication in 2 separate injections
• B. give the medication in the ventrogluteal site
• C. call to get a smaller volume ordered
• D. check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering the medication in 2 separate injections is the correct action. When the total volume of an injection is relatively large for a specific site, dividing it into smaller volumes and administering them separately is a safer practice to prevent discomfort, tissue damage, or absorption issues. Giving the medication in the ventrogluteal site can be appropriate for IM injections but does not address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection. Calling to get a smaller volume ordered may delay treatment and is not necessary when a safe administration method is available. Checking with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication does not directly address the issue of the total volume being too high for a single injection, and changing the formulation may not be necessary if the correct administration technique can be applied.

3. The nurse assesses a 72-year-old client who was admitted for right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Bibasilar crackles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In right-sided congestive heart failure, the nurse would anticipate finding jugular vein distention. This occurs due to increased venous pressure, leading to the distention of the jugular veins in the neck. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased urinary output is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; pleural effusion and bibasilar crackles are more commonly seen in conditions like left-sided heart failure.

4. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the protein level in urine
• B. Have the client turn to the left side
• C. Take the temperature
• D. Monitor the urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.

5. The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

• A. We will call the healthcare provider if the child develops acne.
• B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
• C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occurs.
• D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.

Similar Questions