Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

• A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
• C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
• D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

2. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

3. A client with a history of type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemia. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a dose of insulin as prescribed.
• B. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• C. Administer a fluid bolus to improve hydration.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output closely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's blood glucose level. This is the priority action when dealing with a client admitted with hyperglycemia. Checking the blood glucose level helps determine the severity of hyperglycemia and guides further treatment. Administering insulin or fluids or monitoring intake and output are important interventions but should come after assessing the blood glucose level to inform the most appropriate course of action.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

5. When speaking with a group of teens about chemotherapy side effects for cancer, which side effect would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?

• A. Mouth sores
• B. Fatigue
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teens are more likely to be concerned with hair loss when discussing chemotherapy side effects because it is a visible and emotionally impactful side effect for them. While all the listed side effects are important to consider, hair loss can have a significant impact on a teenager's self-image and emotional well-being, making it a key point of interest for this age group. Mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, but they may not carry the same level of emotional weight and visibility as hair loss for teens.

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