Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

• A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
• C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
• D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

2. A client with chronic liver disease develops jaundice. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?

• A. Assess the client’s skin for lesions or sores.
• B. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
• C. Assess for changes in mental status and behavior.
• D. Monitor the client’s urine output closely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease developing jaundice, the most important assessment the nurse should perform is to monitor the client’s urine output closely. Jaundice can indicate worsening liver function, so monitoring urine output helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, which are critical in chronic liver disease. Assessing the client’s skin for lesions or sores (Choice A) may be relevant for dermatological conditions but is not the priority in this case. Monitoring liver function tests (Choice B) is important but may not provide immediate information on the client’s current status. Assessing for changes in mental status and behavior (Choice C) is important for detecting hepatic encephalopathy but does not directly address the immediate concern of fluid balance and kidney function in the presence of jaundice.

3. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed.
• C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
• D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

4. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

• A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
• B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
• C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
• D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid frequent urination at night.
• B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
• C. Avoid potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges.
• D. Monitor the client’s potassium levels weekly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances, so adequate fluid intake is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is typically taken in the morning to avoid nighttime urination. Choice C is incorrect as potassium-rich foods should not be avoided but monitored, as hydrochlorothiazide can cause potassium loss. Choice D is incorrect as potassium levels should be monitored regularly, but not necessarily weekly, unless indicated by the healthcare provider.

Similar Questions