HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime for best results.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.
2. Prior to surgery, written consent must be obtained. What is the nurse's legal responsibility with regard to obtaining written consent?
- A. Witness the consent and sign the form as a witness
- B. Inform the client of alternatives to the procedure
- C. Explain the procedure in detail to the client
- D. Determine that the surgical consent form has been signed and is included in the client's record
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's legal responsibility is to ensure that informed consent has been obtained by verifying that the client has signed the form and that it is included in the record. Witnessing the consent and signing as a witness is not the nurse's role, as this is typically done by a neutral party. Informing the client of alternatives to the procedure and explaining the procedure in detail are responsibilities of the healthcare provider performing the surgery, not the nurse.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
- D. Suction the client's airway.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is the nurse's first action when a client with COPD presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen saturation in patients with COPD and respiratory distress. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to improve oxygenation takes priority. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also assist with breathing but is not the initial action in this scenario. Suctioning the airway is not indicated unless there are secretions obstructing the airway, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
4. A female client experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and is taken to the emergency department. Initial assessment indicates her blood glucose level is critically low. Once stabilized, she reports being treated for anorexia nervosa. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?
- A. Encourage a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
- B. Encourage her to join a group focusing on self-esteem.
- C. Schedule an outpatient psychosocial assessment.
- D. Teach relaxation techniques to manage stress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Joining a group that focuses on self-esteem is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's discharge plan. This can help the client address underlying emotional issues related to her anorexia nervosa and improve her mental health. Choice A is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet may not address the psychological factors contributing to anorexia nervosa. Choice C is incorrect as scheduling an outpatient psychosocial assessment is important but not the most crucial intervention for discharge planning in this case. Choice D is also not the priority as teaching relaxation techniques, although beneficial, may not directly address the self-esteem and emotional issues that need to be tackled in this situation.
5. A client with heart failure reports nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Administer antiemetics to reduce nausea.
- B. Obtain a list of the client's cardiac medications.
- C. Perform an ECG to evaluate heart function.
- D. Review the client's dietary intake for possible causes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The combination of nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations in a heart failure patient is indicative of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should first obtain a list of the client's medications to verify if they are taking digoxin.
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