Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a nephrostomy. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Foul-smelling drainage
• B. Bloody drainage at site
• C. A & B
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a nephrostomy, the nurse should assess the client for complications and urgently notify the provider if there is foul-smelling drainage, bloody drainage at the site, or both. Foul-smelling drainage can indicate infection, while bloody drainage may suggest bleeding. Clear drainage is generally normal after a nephrostomy. A headache would not typically be directly related to nephrostomy complications. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices for urgent notification, making option C the correct answer.

2. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to immediately contact the healthcare provider?

• A. Flank pain
• B. Periorbital edema
• C. Bloody and cloudy urine
• D. Enlarged abdomen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Periorbital edema would not typically be associated with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) and could indicate other underlying issues that require immediate attention. Flank pain and an enlarged abdomen are common findings in PKD due to kidney enlargement and displacement of other organs. Bloody or cloudy urine can result from cyst rupture or infection, which are expected in PKD. Therefore, periorbital edema is the most alarming finding in this scenario and warrants prompt notification of the healthcare provider.

3. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
• B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
• C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.

4. What is the primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock?

• A. To reduce blood pressure.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To stabilize blood glucose levels.
• D. To maintain adequate tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. In septic shock, there is a significant drop in blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance leading to poor tissue perfusion. IV fluids help to restore intravascular volume, improve perfusion to vital organs, and prevent organ failure. Choice A ('To reduce blood pressure') is incorrect because IV fluids in septic shock aim to restore tissue perfusion rather than lower blood pressure. Choice B ('To increase cardiac output') is incorrect as the primary goal is to improve tissue perfusion, not specifically increase cardiac output. Choice C ('To stabilize blood glucose levels') is unrelated to the primary purpose of administering IV fluids in septic shock, which is to address the compromised tissue perfusion.

5. Which of the following is a common complication of immobility?

• A. Muscle hypertrophy.
• B. Pressure ulcers.
• C. Bone fractures.
• D. Joint stiffness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Pressure ulcers. Immobility can lead to pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on the skin, especially over bony prominences. Muscle hypertrophy (Choice A) is not a common complication of immobility; instead, muscle atrophy is more likely to occur due to disuse. Bone fractures (Choice C) can result from trauma but are not directly associated with immobility unless there is a fall or accident. Joint stiffness (Choice D) can develop due to lack of movement but is not as common or severe as pressure ulcers in cases of prolonged immobility.

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