Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a nephrostomy. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Foul-smelling drainage
• B. Bloody drainage at site
• C. A & B
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a nephrostomy, the nurse should assess the client for complications and urgently notify the provider if there is foul-smelling drainage, bloody drainage at the site, or both. Foul-smelling drainage can indicate infection, while bloody drainage may suggest bleeding. Clear drainage is generally normal after a nephrostomy. A headache would not typically be directly related to nephrostomy complications. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices for urgent notification, making option C the correct answer.

2. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

• A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
• B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
• C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
• D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

3. When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Administering a sedative
• B. Encouraging fluid intake
• C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye
• D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP) is to question the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Some IVP dyes contain iodine, and if the client is allergic to iodine or shellfish, they may experience severe allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, throat tightness, difficulty breathing, or bronchospasm. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may be needed for relaxation during the procedure, encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) is generally beneficial but not the most crucial for IVP preparation, and administering radiopaque dye (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the client's safety regarding allergies to iodine or shellfish.

4. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?

• A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
• B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
• C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
• D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.

5. A patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to treat a urinary tract infection complains of a sore throat. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

• A. Complete blood count with differential
• B. Throat culture
• C. Urinalysis
• D. Coagulation studies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for a urinary tract infection presents with a sore throat, the nurse should request a complete blood count with differential. TMP-SMX can cause life-threatening adverse effects such as agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a low white blood cell count, which can manifest as a sore throat. Ordering a complete blood count with differential helps assess the patient's white blood cell count to detect any potential serious adverse effects. Throat culture (Choice B) is not indicated unless there are specific signs of a throat infection. Urinalysis (Choice C) is not relevant for assessing a sore throat. Coagulation studies (Choice D) are not typically indicated for a sore throat symptom.

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