Nursing Elites

1. An adult who was recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse, 'it feels like I am driving through a tunnel.' The client expresses great concern about going blind. Which nursing instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen
• B. Avoid frequent eye pressure measurements
• C. Wear prescription glasses
• D. Eat a diet high in carotene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen. In glaucoma, maintaining the prescribed eye drop regimen is crucial for controlling intraocular pressure, which helps in preventing vision loss. Consistent use of eye drops as directed can slow down the progression of the disease and preserve vision. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding frequent eye pressure measurements does not address the primary treatment for glaucoma. Choice C is incorrect as wearing prescription glasses may be helpful for vision correction but does not directly address the management of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because while a diet high in carotene may promote overall eye health, it is not the most important instruction for managing glaucoma.

2. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for

• A. hyperkalemia.
• B. hypermagnesemia.
• C. hypocalcemia.
• D. hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is on a low-protein diet. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse when the client asks why this diet is necessary?

• A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
• B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
• C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
• D. It helps prevent dehydration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure because it helps prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Excess protein can lead to the accumulation of waste products that the compromised kidneys may not effectively filter out, further burdening the already impaired renal function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure is to reduce the workload on the kidneys by minimizing the production of waste products that can exacerbate the condition, not specifically to reduce kidney workload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent dehydration.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient whose serum sodium level is 140 mEq/L and serum potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. The nurse will contact the patient’s provider to discuss an order for

• A. a low-potassium diet.
• B. intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• C. Kayexalate and sorbitol.
• D. salt substitutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient is experiencing mild hyperkalemia with a potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L. The appropriate intervention for mild hyperkalemia is a low-potassium diet to restrict potassium intake. This helps in managing and preventing further elevation of potassium levels. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is not indicated as the patient's sodium level is normal at 140 mEq/L. Kayexalate, a cation-exchange resin, is typically used for severe hyperkalemia to promote potassium excretion. Salt substitutes, which often contain potassium chloride, should be avoided in patients with hyperkalemia as they can exacerbate the condition by increasing potassium levels further.

5. A client is scheduled to undergo computerized tomography (CT) with contrast for evaluation of an abdominal mass. The nurse should tell the client that:

• A. The test may be painful
• B. The test takes 2 to 3 hours
• C. Food and fluids are not allowed for 4 hours after the test
• D. Dye is injected and may cause a warm flushing sensation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A contrast-aided CT scan involves the injection of dye to enhance the images obtained. The dye may cause a warm flushing sensation when injected, which is a common side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. CT with contrast is generally not a painful procedure, the duration of the test does not usually take 2 to 3 hours, and restrictions on food and fluids are typically before the test, not afterward.

Similar Questions