HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. An adult who was recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse, 'it feels like I am driving through a tunnel.' The client expresses great concern about going blind. Which nursing instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen
- B. Avoid frequent eye pressure measurements
- C. Wear prescription glasses
- D. Eat a diet high in carotene
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen. In glaucoma, maintaining the prescribed eye drop regimen is crucial for controlling intraocular pressure, which helps in preventing vision loss. Consistent use of eye drops as directed can slow down the progression of the disease and preserve vision. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding frequent eye pressure measurements does not address the primary treatment for glaucoma. Choice C is incorrect as wearing prescription glasses may be helpful for vision correction but does not directly address the management of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because while a diet high in carotene may promote overall eye health, it is not the most important instruction for managing glaucoma.
2. The nurse is obtaining a health history from a new client who has a history of kidney stones. Which statement by the client indicates an increased risk for renal calculi?
- A. Eats a vegetarian diet with cheese 2 to 3 times a day
- B. Experiences additional stress since adopting a child
- C. Jogs more frequently than usual daily routine
- D. Drinks several bottles of carbonated water daily
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Drinking several bottles of carbonated water daily may contribute to renal calculi formation due to the high mineral content. Carbonated drinks can increase the risk of kidney stones due to their high levels of phosphoric acid and caffeine, which can lead to the formation of crystals in the urine. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to directly contribute to an increased risk of renal calculi compared to the excessive consumption of carbonated water.
3. The healthcare provider notes a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg in a patient taking a thiazide diuretic. The patient reports taking an herbal medication that a friend recommended. Which herbal product is likely, given this patient’s blood pressure?
- A. Ginkgo
- B. Hawthorn
- C. Licorice
- D. St. John’s wort
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ginkgo. Increased blood pressure can result when ginkgo is used in combination with a thiazide diuretic. Option B (Hawthorn) is incorrect because hawthorn is more commonly associated with lowering blood pressure. Option C (Licorice) is incorrect because licorice can lead to sodium and water retention, potentially exacerbating hypertension. Option D (St. John’s wort) is incorrect as it is not typically associated with significant blood pressure effects.
4. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Excessive GFR
- B. Reduced GFR
- C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.
5. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?
- A. White blood count of 10,000/mm³.
- B. Serum glucose of 115 mg/dL.
- C. Purulent sputum.
- D. Excessive hunger.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.
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