HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. When obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having bladder cancer, which question should the nurse ask to determine the client's risk factors?
- A. Do you smoke cigarettes?
- B. Do you consume alcohol?
- C. Do you use recreational drugs?
- D. Do you take any prescription drugs?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Do you smoke cigarettes?' Smoking is a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals that can accumulate in the urine and damage the lining of the bladder, increasing the risk of developing cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and most prescription drugs are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. It is important for the nurse to assess smoking history as a significant risk factor in determining the client's risk for bladder cancer.
2. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- B. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume.
- C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- D. Keep the patient in a supine position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is crucial for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) because it helps promote venous drainage from the brain, thereby reducing ICP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated helps facilitate cerebral perfusion and can prevent a further increase in ICP. Administering diuretics (Choice B) may be considered in some cases to reduce fluid volume, but it is not the most critical intervention for immediate ICP management. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is not typically indicated for managing increased ICP unless there is a specific underlying condition requiring their use. Keeping the patient in a supine position (Choice D) can actually worsen ICP by impeding venous outflow from the brain, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.
3. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
- B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
- C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
- D. Polyuria and excessive thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had severe vomiting. The patient’s serum sodium level is 130 mEq/L. The nurse will expect the patient’s provider to order which treatment?
- A. Diuretic therapy
- B. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline
- C. Intravenous normal saline 0.9%
- D. Oral sodium supplements
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient has hyponatremia with a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L. For a serum sodium level between 125 and 135 mEq/L, the appropriate treatment is intravenous normal saline 0.9%. Normal saline helps to increase the sodium content in the vascular fluid. Diuretic therapy would exacerbate sodium and fluid depletion, which is not suitable for a patient already dehydrated from severe vomiting. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline is typically reserved for severe hyponatremia with a serum sodium level below 120 mEq/L. Oral sodium supplements are not feasible in this case as the patient is vomiting and may not be able to tolerate oral intake easily.
5. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. IV fluid infusion.
- B. Pedal pulses.
- C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
- D. Capillary refill time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.
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