Nursing Elites

1. When obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having bladder cancer, which question should the nurse ask to determine the client's risk factors?

• A. Do you smoke cigarettes?
• B. Do you consume alcohol?
• C. Do you use recreational drugs?
• D. Do you take any prescription drugs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Do you smoke cigarettes?' Smoking is a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals that can accumulate in the urine and damage the lining of the bladder, increasing the risk of developing cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and most prescription drugs are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. It is important for the nurse to assess smoking history as a significant risk factor in determining the client's risk for bladder cancer.

2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is admitted after vomiting bright red blood several times over the course of 2 hours. In reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse finds the client's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120g/L) and the hematocrit is 35% (0.35). Which action should the nurse prepare to take?

• A. Continue monitoring for blood loss
• B. Administer 1,000 mL (1L) of normal saline
• C. Transfuse 2 units of platelets
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.

3. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
• B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
• C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
• D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

4. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client for:

• A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
• B. Fluctuating blood glucose levels.
• C. Cushing's syndrome.
• D. Cardiac arrhythmias.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, assessing the client for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is crucial due to the risk of this serious complication. A CSF leak can lead to infection and increased intracranial pressure, which must be promptly identified and managed to prevent further complications. Fluctuating blood glucose levels (Choice B) are not directly associated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) is a condition related to prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and is not a common immediate concern post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cardiac arrhythmias (Choice D) are not typically a direct complication of this surgical procedure, making it a less relevant concern compared to a CSF leak.

5. A client has just had a central line catheter placed that is specific for hemodialysis. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Use the catheter for the next laboratory blood draw.
• B. Monitor the central venous pressure through this line.
• C. Access the line for the next intravenous medication.
• D. Place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse after a central line catheter placement for hemodialysis is to place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis treatment. This helps prevent clot formation in the line and maintain patency for future use. Using the catheter for blood draws is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection. Monitoring central venous pressure is not indicated with this type of catheter. Accessing the line for medications is also not recommended to prevent complications and ensure the line is solely used for hemodialysis purposes.

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