Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?

• A. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
• D. White blood cell count of 7000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, a potential complication of TPN leading to fluid overload. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) are expected in TPN, serum potassium levels (Choice B) are within the normal range, and a white blood cell count (Choice D) of 7000/mm3 is also normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it suggests a complication related to TPN.

2. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for the treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?

• A. Initiate cardiac telemetry monitoring
• B. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry
• C. Perform capillary glucose measurements
• D. Monitor serum creatinine levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can potentially impact kidney function, making it essential to monitor serum creatinine levels to assess renal function. Option A, initiating cardiac telemetry monitoring, is not directly related to acyclovir administration for herpes zoster. Option B, maintaining continuous pulse oximetry, is more relevant in assessing respiratory status rather than monitoring for acyclovir-related side effects. Option C, performing capillary glucose measurements, is not directly associated with acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster.

3. The nurse preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output
• B. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis
• D. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early signs of shock. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain perfusion, mental status changes can indicate decreased cerebral perfusion, and low urine output reflects poor renal perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils are not typical findings in the early stages of shock. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis are more indicative of late-stage shock. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in various conditions but are not specific early signs of shock.

4. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
• B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
• C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
• D. Suction the client's oropharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.

5. When the nurse enters the room to change the dressing of a male client with cancer, he asks, 'Have you ever been with someone when they died?' What is the nurse's best response to him?

• A. Yes, I have. Do you have some questions about dying?
• B. Several times. Now, let's get your dressing changed.
• C. A few times. It was peaceful and there was no pain.
• D. Yes, but you're doing great. Are you concerned about dying?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the client's question and open the door for further discussion by asking if they have questions about dying. This approach allows the nurse to address the client's concerns and fears, promoting open communication and providing emotional support. Choices B and C do not encourage further dialogue about the client's feelings and concerns regarding death. Choice D briefly acknowledges the question but does not actively invite the client to express their thoughts and emotions regarding dying.

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