the nurse is planning care for a 2 year old child who is scheduled for an infusion of immune globulin for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic pur
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. The nurse is planning care for a 2-year-old child who is scheduled for an infusion of immune globulin for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this child?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When caring for a child with ITP scheduled for immune globulin infusion, the highest priority is to prevent infection. This is crucial due to the risk of bleeding associated with ITP and the immunosuppression that can be caused by the condition and its treatment. The other options, such as 'Risk for injury,' 'Altered oral mucous membranes,' and 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' are not as high a priority as preventing infection in this particular situation.

2. A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. Spontaneous abortions, also known as miscarriages, often occur due to chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. These abnormalities are a common cause of early pregnancy loss. Choice B is incorrect because an incompetent cervix typically leads to late miscarriages, not early spontaneous abortions. Choice C is incorrect as while infections can be a cause of spontaneous abortions, they are not the most common cause. Choice D is incorrect as nutritional deficiencies are not the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rotating insulin injection sites prevents lipodystrophy and ensures proper insulin absorption.

4. A client who is 12-hours post-op following a left hip replacement has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the client's urinary output is 60 ml in the past 3 hours. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client post-op with low urinary output, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the client's vital signs. Vital signs can provide valuable information about the client's overall condition, fluid status, and potential complications. Assessing the vital signs can help the nurse to determine if the low urine output is indicative of a larger issue that needs immediate attention. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline may be necessary but should not be the first action without assessing the client. Notifying the healthcare provider should follow assessment if there are concerns. Replacing the catheter with a larger size is not indicated solely based on low urinary output and should not be the first action taken.

5. When obtaining a urine specimen from a female infant, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When obtaining a urine specimen from a female infant, securing the pediatric urine collector bag to the perineum is the most appropriate intervention. This method allows for non-invasive collection of urine without causing discomfort or distress to the infant. Placing the wet diaper in a biohazard specimen bag (Choice A) is incorrect as it does not involve collecting a fresh urine sample. Using a catheter (Choice B) is invasive and not typically necessary for routine urine specimen collection from infants. Collecting the urinary stream in mid-air when the infant cries (Choice C) is not a reliable or hygienic method of obtaining a urine specimen.

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