the nurse offers diet teaching to a female college student who was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia following her voluntary adoption of a lacto v
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. The nurse offers diet teaching to a female college student who was diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia following her voluntary adoption of a lacto-vegetarian diet. What nutrients should the nurse suggest this client eat to best meet her nutritional needs while allowing her to adhere to a lacto-vegetarian diet?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Combining legumes and grains ensures the client receives all essential amino acids to form complete proteins, which is crucial in a vegetarian diet. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Option A is not necessary as there are plant-based sources of essential amino acids in a lacto-vegetarian diet. Option B suggests vitamin K, which is not directly related to enhancing red blood cell production. Option C mentions increasing dark yellow vegetables, which are sources of non-heme iron, but combining legumes and grains is more effective in addressing the protein needs of a lacto-vegetarian.

2. A 24-year-old female client who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for pain relief. Which information should the nurse provide the client about taking this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any changes in stool color to the healthcare provider. This is important because changes in stool color can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen. Choice A is incorrect because while taking ibuprofen with meals can help reduce stomach upset, it is not the most crucial information to provide. Choice B is incorrect as taking ibuprofen with an antacid is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is also incorrect because while ibuprofen and aspirin are both NSAIDs, they can be taken together under certain circumstances, but it's important to be cautious and follow healthcare provider recommendations.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with COPD reports difficulty breathing while receiving oxygen is to check the client's oxygen saturation level. This helps in determining the adequacy of oxygenation and identifying the cause of the breathing difficulty. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice A) may not be appropriate without knowing the current oxygen saturation level. Instructing the client to breathe deeply and cough (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for oxygen assessment. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice D) can help with breathing but should come after ensuring proper oxygenation.

4. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a male client who has chronic renal failure. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic renal failure, difficulty breathing is the most critical finding to report. This symptom may indicate fluid overload or pulmonary edema, which can be life-threatening. Shortness of breath when lying flat (orthopnea) is also concerning but less urgent than difficulty breathing. Swelling in the feet and ankles (edema) is a common finding in renal failure but may not be as immediately critical as difficulty breathing. A metallic taste in the mouth is associated with uremia, a common complication of chronic renal failure, but it is not as urgent as respiratory distress.

5. A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D. Breath sounds.' When a client receiving amlodipine develops edema, it is crucial to assess for potential heart failure, a side effect of the medication. Checking breath sounds helps in identifying any signs of pulmonary edema, a severe complication of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context. Bladder distention could be associated with urinary issues, serum albumin level with malnutrition or liver disease, and abdominal girth with gastrointestinal problems, none of which directly relate to the potential heart failure induced by amlodipine.

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