which instruction should the nurse provide to an elderly client who is taking an ace inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. Which instruction should the nurse provide to an elderly client who is taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for an elderly client taking both an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker is to change positions slowly. Both medications can lead to orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions, which can increase the risk of falls. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent falls. Wearing long-sleeved clothing when outdoors does not directly relate to the medication combination. Reporting the onset of a sore throat is important for monitoring potential side effects but is not specific to these medications. While potassium levels should be monitored with ACE inhibitors, eating plenty of potassium-rich foods without guidance can lead to hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This helps to cover and protect the exposed bowel, preventing infection and maintaining a moist environment for wound healing. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after addressing the immediate need of covering the wound. Administering pain medication (option C) and covering the wound with an abdominal binder (option D) are not appropriate initial actions for this situation.

3. Nurses working in labor and delivery are demanding a change in policy because they believe they are required to float more often than nurses on other units. However, floating to labor and delivery is not reciprocated because other nurses are not competent to provide highly specialized obstetrical skills. What action is best for the nurse-manager to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse-manager to implement is to propose a method for self-staffing labor and delivery. This approach allows nurses to manage their schedules, ensuring a fair balance of workloads. Requiring cross-training for obstetrics for other nurses (Choice A) may not be feasible or necessary for all units. Reminding nurses that floating is an administrative policy (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of workload balance. Encouraging nurses to share their feelings with administration (Choice D) may not lead to a concrete solution for the unequal floating concerns.

4. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.

Similar Questions

The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?
The nurse is planning care for a 2-year-old child who is scheduled for an infusion of immune globulin for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this child?
A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?
A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses