Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative for a femoral head fracture repair. Which intervention(s) should the nurse plan to administer for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis?

• A. Pneumatic compression devices
• B. Incentive spirometry
• C. Assisted ambulation
• D. Calf-pump exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in a postoperative client with a femoral head fracture repair is the use of pneumatic compression devices. These devices help prevent stasis in the lower extremities by promoting venous return through intermittent compression. Incentive spirometry is used to prevent respiratory complications by promoting lung expansion and clearing secretions, not for DVT prophylaxis. Assisted ambulation and calf-pump exercises are beneficial for promoting circulation and preventing DVT, but pneumatic compression devices are more effective in this specific postoperative scenario.

2. A nurse contacts the healthcare provider after reviewing a client’s laboratory results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. For which action should the nurse recommend a prescription?

• A. Intravenous fluids
• B. Hemodialysis
• C. Fluid restriction
• D. Urine culture and sensitivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal range for BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL, and for creatinine, it is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL in males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL in females. Creatinine is a more specific marker for kidney function compared to BUN. In this case, the client's creatinine level is within the normal range, indicating a non-renal cause for the elevated BUN. Dehydration is a common cause of increased BUN, so the appropriate action would be to recommend intravenous fluids to address the dehydration. Fluid restriction is not indicated as the client needs hydration. Hemodialysis is not appropriate for dehydration and is typically reserved for renal failure. The laboratory results do not suggest an infection, making a urine culture and sensitivity unnecessary in this scenario.

3. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer the prescribed antibiotics.
• B. Monitor for signs of infection.
• C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• D. Monitor the client's weight daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a severe complication associated with peritoneal dialysis, making it essential to promptly identify any signs of infection, such as abdominal pain, cloudy dialysate, fever, and an elevated white blood cell count. Administering antibiotics without proper assessment can lead to antibiotic resistance and should not be the initial action. Encouraging increased fluid intake may not be appropriate without assessing the client's fluid status. Monitoring weight alone does not address the immediate risk of peritonitis in a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis.

4. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
• B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
• C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
• D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

5. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about risk factors associated with atherosclerosis and methods to reduce the risk. Which of the following is a risk factor that the client cannot modify?

• A. Diabetes
• B. Age
• C. Exercise level
• D. Dietary preferences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis because it is a natural part of the aging process. While lifestyle factors such as diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can be modified to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, age cannot be altered. Therefore, age is the correct answer. Diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can all be improved or managed through interventions and lifestyle changes to mitigate the risk of atherosclerosis.

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