the nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative for a femoral head fracture repair which interventions should the nurse plan to administer for d
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative for a femoral head fracture repair. Which intervention(s) should the nurse plan to administer for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in a postoperative client with a femoral head fracture repair is the use of pneumatic compression devices. These devices help prevent stasis in the lower extremities by promoting venous return through intermittent compression. Incentive spirometry is used to prevent respiratory complications by promoting lung expansion and clearing secretions, not for DVT prophylaxis. Assisted ambulation and calf-pump exercises are beneficial for promoting circulation and preventing DVT, but pneumatic compression devices are more effective in this specific postoperative scenario.

2. An adult female client has undergone a routine health screening in the clinic. Which of the following values indicates to the nurse who receives the report of the client’s laboratory work that the client’s hematocrit is normal?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The normal hematocrit for an adult female client ranges from 35% to 47%. A hematocrit value of 43% falls within this normal range, indicating normal levels of red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are low hematocrit values and are considered below the normal range for adult females, signifying potential anemia or other health issues.

3. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.

4. A client presents with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Therefore, the appropriate action is to document this finding in the client's chart and continue monitoring. There is no need to evaluate intake and output, as the specific gravity is normal. Obtaining a urine culture and sensitivity or encouraging increased fluid intake is unnecessary in this situation.

5. In a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following lab results is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with cirrhosis, a low platelet count is the most concerning lab result. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is common in cirrhosis due to impaired platelet production in the liver. It significantly increases the risk of bleeding and can lead to serious complications such as hemorrhage. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice A) are expected in cirrhosis but may not directly indicate the severity of the disease. Low albumin levels (Choice B) are common in cirrhosis and can contribute to fluid retention but do not pose an immediate risk of bleeding. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are also expected in cirrhosis and typically indicate impaired liver function but do not directly increase the risk of bleeding as much as a low platelet count.

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