Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 7-year-old patient who will receive oral antibiotics. Which antibiotic order will the healthcare provider question for this patient?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
• B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• C. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
• D. Tetracycline (Sumycin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tetracycline (Sumycin). Tetracyclines should not be given to children younger than 8 years of age because they irreversibly discolor the permanent teeth. Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, and Clindamycin are antibiotics that are generally safe for use in children and do not have the same tooth discoloration side effect as Tetracycline. Therefore, these antibiotics would be more appropriate choices for a 7-year-old patient.

2. A female patient will receive doxycycline to treat a sexually transmitted infection (STI). What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?

• A. Nausea and vomiting are uncommon adverse effects.
• B. The drug may cause possible teratogenic effects.
• C. Increase intake of dairy products with each dose of this medication.
• D. Use a backup method of contraception if taking oral contraceptives.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The desired action of oral contraceptives can be reduced when taken with tetracyclines like doxycycline. Therefore, patients on oral contraceptives should be advised to use a backup contraception method while taking doxycycline. Choice A is incorrect because nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of doxycycline. Choice B is incorrect because doxycycline is not known for causing teratogenic effects. Choice C is incorrect because dairy products can interfere with the absorption of doxycycline, so they should be avoided when taking this medication.

3. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Administering oral fluids.
• B. Administering IV fluids.
• C. Administering analgesics.
• D. Encouraging the patient to ambulate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with acute pancreatitis is administering IV fluids. IV fluid administration is crucial in managing acute pancreatitis as it helps maintain hydration, correct electrolyte imbalances, and prevent shock. Administering oral fluids (Choice A) may not be sufficient to address the fluid loss and maintain hydration in these patients. While analgesics (Choice C) are important for pain management in pancreatitis, addressing hydration and shock prevention takes precedence. Encouraging the patient to ambulate (Choice D) may be beneficial in some cases for preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis, but it is not the primary intervention needed in the acute phase of pancreatitis.

4. A client has pyelonephritis and expresses embarrassment about discussing symptoms. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Assure the client that their symptoms will be kept confidential.
• B. Acknowledge the client's discomfort and avoid discussing elimination topics.
• C. Encourage the use of familiar language and assure the client they can take their time.
• D. Offer the client a nurse of the same gender to provide care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client expresses embarrassment or discomfort in discussing symptoms related to sensitive topics like elimination and the genitourinary area, the nurse should respond by encouraging the client to use words they are comfortable with. This helps the client feel more at ease and opens up communication. Offering a nurse of the same gender may not address the client's discomfort with discussing symptoms. Assuring confidentiality is important, but it should not be promised in a way that may not be fulfilled. Avoiding the topic of elimination entirely does not address the client's feelings or promote effective communication.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 62, PaCO2 59, and HCO3. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both the PaO2 and the PaCO2?

• A. The hypercapnia resulted from the rapid respirations.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client had a pneumothorax which restricted ventilation.
• D. The client had a pulmonary embolism that reduced perfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with COPD, oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive, which is the primary stimulus for breathing in these individuals. By providing supplemental oxygen, the hypoxic drive is diminished, resulting in decreased respiratory effort. As a consequence, the PaO2 may increase due to the supplemental oxygen, but this can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive and subsequent retention of carbon dioxide, causing an increase in PaCO2 levels. Option A is incorrect because rapid respirations would typically lower PaCO2 levels. Option C is incorrect as a pneumothorax would lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased PaO2 levels without necessarily affecting PaCO2 levels. Option D is incorrect as a pulmonary embolism would typically result in ventilation-perfusion mismatch and decreased PaO2 levels without directly impacting PaCO2 levels.

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