HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?
- A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
- B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
- C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
- D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.
2. A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?
- A. Increase fluid intake.
- B. Take diphenhydramine.
- C. Stop taking TMP-SMX immediately.
- D. Continue taking the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient develops an all-over rash while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), it may indicate a serious drug reaction. In this case, the patient should stop taking the medication immediately and notify their healthcare provider. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority when a serious drug reaction is suspected. Taking diphenhydramine (Choice B) may help with itching but does not address the underlying issue of a potential drug reaction. Continuing the medication (Choice D) is not advisable when a serious adverse reaction such as a widespread rash occurs.
3. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
- B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
- C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
- D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.
4. The client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:
- A. Decreased blood flow.
- B. Increased blood flow.
- C. Slow blood flow.
- D. Thrombus formation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased blood flow.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), there is a narrowing or blockage of blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. This decreased blood flow results in inadequate oxygen supply to the muscles, causing pain, especially during physical activity when oxygen demand increases. Choice B, 'Increased blood flow,' is incorrect because PVD is characterized by impaired blood circulation rather than increased flow. Choice C, 'Slow blood flow,' is not precise as PVD involves a more significant reduction in blood flow. Choice D, 'Thrombus formation,' is related to the formation of blood clots within vessels, which can be a complication of PVD but is not its main characteristic.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing).
- B. Reduce food intake to alleviate nausea.
- C. Discontinue the insulin dose if unable to eat.
- D. Take the normal dose of insulin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During illness, individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus may experience increased insulin requirements due to factors such as stress and the release of counterregulatory hormones. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring, as stated in choice A, is crucial to closely monitor and adjust insulin doses as needed. Choice B, reducing food intake to alleviate nausea, is incorrect as it may lead to hypoglycemia and does not address the increased insulin needs during illness. Choice C, discontinuing the insulin dose if unable to eat, is dangerous as it can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Choice D, taking the normal dose of insulin, may not be sufficient during illness when insulin requirements are likely elevated.
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