Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?

• A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
• B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
• C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
• D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.

2. A client has just returned to the nursing unit after computerized tomography (CT) with contrast medium. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take as part of routine after-care for this client?

• A. Administering a laxative
• B. Encouraging fluid intake
• C. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest
• D. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After CT scanning with contrast medium, the client does not require special restrictions or interventions. Encouraging fluid intake is important to help flush out the contrast dye and prevent dehydration. Administering a laxative (Choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated after CT with contrast. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice after CT with contrast.

3. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
• B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
• C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
• D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

4. In a patient with anemia, which of the following is the primary symptom to assess?

• A. Fever.
• B. Chest pain.
• C. Shortness of breath.
• D. Muscle cramps.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. In a patient with anemia, the primary symptom to assess is shortness of breath. Anemia leads to a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in tissues not receiving adequate oxygen. This can manifest as shortness of breath, especially during physical exertion. Fever (Choice A), chest pain (Choice B), and muscle cramps (Choice D) are not typically primary symptoms of anemia. Fever may suggest an infection, chest pain can be indicative of cardiac issues, and muscle cramps may be related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders.

5. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Smoking
• B. Asthma
• C. Allergies
• D. Chronic bronchitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Smoking is the correct answer as it is a well-established common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smoking leads to long-term damage to the lungs, contributing to the development of COPD. Choice B, asthma, is not a cause but a separate respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Allergies, choice C, are not a direct cause of COPD but can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with existing COPD. Chronic bronchitis, choice D, is a type of COPD, not a cause of COPD itself, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

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