Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?

• A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
• B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
• C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
• D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.

2. An elderly client is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. The nurse's assessment of the client will most likely reveal which sign/symptom?

• A. Leukocytosis and febrile.
• B. Polycythemia and crackles.
• C. Pharyngitis and sputum production.
• D. Confusion and tachycardia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The onset of pneumonia in the elderly may be signaled by general deterioration, confusion, increased heart rate or increased respiratory rate due to the decreased oxygen- carbon dioxide exchange at the alveoli, known as the V-Q mismatch.

3. A client tells the nurse that he has been experiencing frequent heartburn and has been 'living on antacids.' For which acid-base disturbance does the nurse recognize a risk?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic alkalosis. In this scenario, the client's frequent use of antacids containing alkaline components can lead to an excess of bicarbonate in the body, causing metabolic alkalosis. Oral antacids work by neutralizing stomach acid, potentially leading to an alkaline shift in the body's pH balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic acidosis is not typically associated with antacid use. Respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system dysfunction rather than antacid ingestion.

4. A client presents with a fungal urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessments should the nurse complete? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Palpate the kidneys and bladder.
• B. Assess the medical history and current medical problems.
• C. Perform a bladder scan to assess post-void residual.
• D. Inquire about recent travel to foreign countries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a fungal UTI, the nurse should prioritize gathering information related to the medical history and current medical problems. Clients who are severely immunocompromised or have conditions like diabetes mellitus are more susceptible to fungal UTIs. Assessing the medical history helps identify risk factors and potential causes of the infection. While physical examinations like palpating the kidneys and bladder and performing a bladder scan may be necessary, they should follow the initial assessment of medical history. Inquiring about recent travel to foreign countries is less relevant in the context of a fungal UTI, as the focus should be on immediate medical factors predisposing the client to the infection.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to an infant through an intermittent needle. The nurse notes that the infant has not had a wet diaper for several hours. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Administer the medication and give the infant extra oral fluids.
• B. Contact the provider to request adding intravenous fluids when giving the medication.
• C. Give the medication and obtain a serum peak drug level 45 minutes after the dose.
• D. Hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant not having a wet diaper for several hours indicates a potential decrease in urine output, which can be a sign of nephrotoxicity related to gentamicin. The correct action for the nurse is to hold the dose and contact the provider to request a serum trough drug level. This is important to monitor the drug levels and ensure that they are not reaching toxic levels. Administering the medication without addressing the decreased urine output could potentially lead to further nephrotoxicity. Contacting the provider to add intravenous fluids or obtaining a serum peak drug level are not the most appropriate actions in this situation as the priority is to assess for potential nephrotoxicity and ensure patient safety.

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