HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. Which lab result would be most indicative of renal failure?
- A. Elevated creatinine levels.
- B. Low potassium levels.
- C. Low calcium levels.
- D. High sodium levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine levels. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function, which is commonly seen in renal failure. Choice B, low potassium levels, is not typically associated with renal failure. In fact, renal failure is more likely to cause high potassium levels due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. Choice C, low calcium levels, are not directly indicative of renal failure. Renal failure can lead to disturbances in calcium levels, but low calcium levels alone are not a specific marker for renal failure. Choice D, high sodium levels, are also not typically associated with renal failure. In renal failure, there may be disturbances in sodium levels, but high sodium levels alone are not a direct indicator of renal failure.
2. A client is receiving treatment for hypothyroidism. Which of these assessments would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Heart rate of 70 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg would be most concerning to the nurse because changes in blood pressure can indicate worsening hypothyroidism, potentially leading to complications such as myxedema coma. A heart rate of 70 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are within normal ranges and not typically directly associated with hypothyroidism complications.
3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Epigastric pain radiating to the back.
- C. Temperature of 102°F (38.9°C).
- D. Mild jaundice.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with pancreatitis and a history of alcoholism. Fever in this context can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are common symptoms of pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Epigastric pain radiating to the back (choice B) is a classic symptom of pancreatitis and should be addressed, but a fever takes precedence. Mild jaundice (choice D) may be present in pancreatitis but is not as urgent as a high temperature signaling possible infection.
4. A male client with unstable angina needs a cardiac catheterization. So the healthcare provider explains the risks and benefits of the procedure and then leaves to set up for the procedure. When the nurse presents the consent form for signature, the client hesitates and asks how the wires will keep his heart going. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Answer the client's specific questions with a short, understandable explanation
- B. Postpone the procedure until the client understands the risks and benefits
- C. Call the client's next of kin and ask them to provide verbal consent
- D. Page the healthcare provider to return and provide additional explanation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to page the healthcare provider to return and provide additional explanation. It is crucial for the client to have a clear understanding of the procedure, including its risks and benefits, before signing the consent form. While the nurse can provide general information, the detailed explanation of how the procedure works and its effects should come from the healthcare provider who will perform the procedure. Postponing the procedure until the client understands is appropriate, but the immediate need is to clarify the client's concerns with the healthcare provider. Calling the client's next of kin for verbal consent is not the correct course of action as the client is present and able to provide consent after receiving adequate information.
5. The nurse is taking the blood pressure measurement of a client with Parkinson's disease. Which information in the client's admission assessment is relevant to the nurse's plan for taking the blood pressure reading?
- A. Frequent syncope
- B. Muscle rigidity
- C. Gait instability
- D. Fine motor tremors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Frequent syncope.' Orthostatic hypotension, common in Parkinson's disease, often causes syncope (fainting) when blood pressure drops upon standing. This information is critical for planning safe blood pressure measurements, ensuring readings are taken in both lying and standing positions to assess for sudden drops in pressure. Muscle rigidity, tremors, or gait instability are important symptoms in Parkinson's disease but are not directly related to blood pressure assessment.