Nursing Elites

1. Which lab result would be most indicative of renal failure?

• A. Elevated creatinine levels.
• B. Low potassium levels.
• C. Low calcium levels.
• D. High sodium levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine levels. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function, which is commonly seen in renal failure. Choice B, low potassium levels, is not typically associated with renal failure. In fact, renal failure is more likely to cause high potassium levels due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. Choice C, low calcium levels, are not directly indicative of renal failure. Renal failure can lead to disturbances in calcium levels, but low calcium levels alone are not a specific marker for renal failure. Choice D, high sodium levels, are also not typically associated with renal failure. In renal failure, there may be disturbances in sodium levels, but high sodium levels alone are not a direct indicator of renal failure.

2. A client with elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) triggers the release of this hormone due to which disorder?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Dehydration
• C. Renal failure
• D. Edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases tubular permeability to water, causing more water absorption into the capillaries. ADH is released in response to a rising extracellular fluid osmolarity, such as in dehydration. Pneumonia, renal failure, and edema do not typically lead to the release of ADH. Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung condition, renal failure affects kidney function, and edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues, none of which directly stimulate the release of ADH.

3. A client who has undergone abdominal surgery calls the nurse and reports that she just felt 'something give way' in the abdominal incision. The nurse checks the incision and notes the presence of wound dehiscence. The nurse immediately:

• A. Contacts the physician
• B. Documents the findings
• C. Places the client in a supine position with the legs flat
• D. Covers the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of wound dehiscence indicates a separation of the layers of the surgical incision. The immediate priority for the nurse is to cover the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution. This helps to protect the wound from contamination and promotes a moist environment conducive to healing. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but the initial action should be to address the wound. Documenting the findings (Choice B) is necessary but not the immediate priority. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs flat (Choice C) is not indicated in this situation as wound dehiscence requires wound care intervention.

4. When assessing an individual with peripheral vascular disease, which clinical manifestation would indicate complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg?

• A. Aching pain in the left calf.
• B. Burning pain in the left calf.
• C. Numbness and tingling in the left leg.
• D. Coldness of the left foot and ankle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coldness of the left foot and ankle is the correct clinical manifestation indicating complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg. Complete arterial obstruction results in reduced blood flow, leading to decreased temperature in the affected area. Aching pain (Choice A) and burning pain (Choice B) are more commonly associated with partial obstructions or ischemia, while numbness and tingling (Choice C) can be indicative of nerve involvement or compromised circulation, but not specifically complete arterial obstruction. The coldness in the foot and ankle is a result of severely reduced blood flow, which impairs the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues in that area, leading to a lower temperature. This symptom is a critical indicator of a more severe blockage compared to the other options provided.

5. A client with stress incontinence is being taught about pelvic muscle exercises. Which statements should be included by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Starting and stopping the urine stream involves using pelvic muscles.
• B. Tighten pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relax for a slow count of 10.
• C. Pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in various positions: lying down, sitting up, and standing.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching a client with stress incontinence about pelvic muscle exercises are that starting and stopping the urine stream involve using pelvic muscles and that tightening pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relaxing for a slow count of 10 can help strengthen them. It is essential to highlight that pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in various positions, including lying down, sitting up, and standing. This variety in positions helps engage the muscles effectively. Performing these exercises 15 times in each position can aid in strengthening the pelvic floor muscles. Consistent exercise over several weeks typically leads to improved control over urine leakage. Choice C is incorrect because pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in different positions and are not limited to sitting upright with feet on the floor.

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