Nursing Elites

1. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
• B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
• C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
• D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

2. A client with bladder cancer who underwent a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider?

• A. The ileostomy is draining blood-tinged urine.
• B. There is serous sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• C. The ileostomy stoma appears pale and cyanotic.
• D. Oxygen saturations are 92% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pale or cyanotic appearance of the ileostomy stoma indicates compromised circulation, which can lead to necrosis if not promptly addressed. On the other hand, blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are common following a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. These findings do not typically indicate an urgent issue. An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly below the normal range but does not warrant urgent healthcare provider contact unless accompanied by significant respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms.

3. A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity.
• B. Place the client on restricted fluids.
• C. Assess the client’s creatinine level.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.040 is higher than the normal range (1.005 to 1.030) and can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow, or the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In this situation, the priority action should be to increase the client's fluid intake to address the high specific gravity. Obtaining a urine culture, placing the client on restricted fluids, or assessing the creatinine level would not directly address the underlying issue of high urine specific gravity caused by dehydration or other factors.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of intravenous ceftriaxone (Rocephin) to a patient. When reviewing the patient’s chart, the nurse notes that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking amoxicillin. What is the nurse’s next action?

• A. Administer the drug and observe closely for hypersensitivity reactions.
• B. Ask the provider whether a cephalosporin from a different generation may be used.
• C. Contact the provider to report drug hypersensitivity.
• D. Notify the provider and suggest an oral cephalosporin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient has a history of a rash with amoxicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic like ceftriaxone should be administered cautiously due to a possible cross-reactivity. The nurse should still administer the drug but closely monitor the patient for any signs of hypersensitivity reactions. Asking for a different generation of cephalosporin or suggesting an oral form does not address the potential cross-reactivity issue. Contacting the provider to report drug hypersensitivity would delay care when the patient needs immediate treatment.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?

• A. Administering IV fluids.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering diuretics.
• D. Administering antihypertensives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

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