a postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse what response is best for the nurse to provide
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

2. A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client’s blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions should the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During hemodialysis, a drop in blood pressure can occur due to fluid removal. To maintain blood pressure, the nurse should consider adjusting the rate of extracorporeal blood flow to optimize fluid removal without causing hypotension. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position can help improve venous return and cardiac output. Administering a bolus of normal saline can help increase intravascular volume and support blood pressure. Therefore, all the actions listed in choices A, B, and C are appropriate measures to maintain blood pressure during hemodialysis. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as it encompasses all the relevant actions to address the dropping blood pressure effectively. Choices A, B, and C, when implemented together, can help manage hypotension during hemodialysis.

3. What is the most important content for the nurse to include in discharge teaching for a 51-year-old truck driver who smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, is 30 pounds overweight, and has been diagnosed with a gastric ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Information about smoking cessation. Smoking is a significant risk factor for ulcer formation. It is crucial for the nurse to include smoking cessation information in the discharge teaching to help manage the gastric ulcer and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While diet modifications may be beneficial, addressing smoking cessation takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ulcer development.

4. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isotonic intravenous (IV) fluids at an infusion rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse performs an assessment and notes a heart rate of 102 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 160/85 mm Hg, and crackles auscultated in both lungs. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is showing signs of fluid volume excess, indicated by crackles in both lungs, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. To address this, the nurse should decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider. Increasing the IV fluid rate would worsen fluid overload. Requesting colloidal or hypertonic IV solutions would exacerbate the issue by pulling more fluids into the intravascular space, leading to further volume overload.

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