HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
- B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
- C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
- D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.
2. For a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) of the lower extremities who is trying to manage their condition well, which routine should the nurse evaluate as appropriate?
- A. Resting with the legs elevated above the level of the heart.
- B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day.
- C. Minimizing activity.
- D. Wearing antiembolism stockings at all times when out of bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day is appropriate for clients with PVD as it helps stimulate collateral circulation and improve blood flow. Choice A is incorrect because while elevating the legs can help with symptoms temporarily, it is not as effective as walking for improving circulation. Choice C, minimizing activity, is not recommended as it can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms. Choice D, wearing antiembolism stockings, is not specifically indicated for PVD and may not address the underlying circulation issues.
3. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following lab values would be expected?
- A. Elevated creatinine levels.
- B. Low hemoglobin levels.
- C. Elevated potassium levels.
- D. Low sodium levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, elevated creatinine levels are expected due to impaired kidney function. Creatinine is a waste product that is typically filtered out by the kidneys. With kidney disease, the clearance of creatinine is reduced, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Low hemoglobin levels (choice B) may be seen in chronic kidney disease due to decreased production of erythropoietin. However, elevated potassium levels (choice C) and low sodium levels (choice D) are more commonly associated with kidney dysfunction but are not as specific indicators of chronic kidney disease as elevated creatinine levels.
4. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?
- A. Hypercalcemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.
5. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is being discharged. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Take your blood pressure every morning.
- B. Weigh yourself at the same time each day.
- C. Contact your provider if you have visual disturbances.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) should be educated on monitoring their blood pressure daily and weighing themselves consistently to detect any changes promptly. It is essential to contact the healthcare provider if visual disturbances occur, as this could indicate a complication such as a berry aneurysm associated with PKD. Foul-smelling or bloody urine should also prompt notification to the provider as they could signify urinary tract infections or glomerular injury. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they address crucial aspects of managing PKD and its potential complications. Choices A and B help in monitoring for changes in blood pressure and fluid status, while choice C focuses on detecting possible neurological complications. Choices A, B, and C are relevant to PKD management and should be included in the client's discharge teaching. Choices that mention diarrhea and renal stones are not directly associated with PKD; therefore, teaching related to these conditions would be irrelevant in this context.
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