Nursing Elites

1. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
• B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
• C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
• D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

2. A client admitted from a nursing home after several recent falls needs a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. What should the nurse complete first?

• A. Obtain urine sample for culture and sensitivity.
• B. Administer intravenous antibiotics.
• C. Encourage protein intake and additional fluids.
• D. Consult physical therapy for gait training.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to obtain a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. Older adults with recent falls may have atypical symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI), which can present as new-onset confusion or falling. It is crucial to rule out UTI before initiating antibiotics. While administering antibiotics, encouraging protein intake, fluids, and consulting physical therapy are important interventions, they should follow the urine sample collection to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

3. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?

• A. Involvement of a single lymph node.
• B. Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
• C. Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
• D. Involvement of diffuse disease of one or more extralymphatic organs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.

4. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

• A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
• B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
• C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
• D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is on a low-protein diet. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse when the client asks why this diet is necessary?

• A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
• B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
• C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
• D. It helps prevent dehydration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure because it helps prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Excess protein can lead to the accumulation of waste products that the compromised kidneys may not effectively filter out, further burdening the already impaired renal function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure is to reduce the workload on the kidneys by minimizing the production of waste products that can exacerbate the condition, not specifically to reduce kidney workload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent dehydration.

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