HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?
- A. A 25-year-old female with a history of sexually transmitted diseases
- B. A 42-year-old male who has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years
- C. A 55-year-old female who has had numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis
- D. An 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use, which is reflected in an 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for developing bladder cancer. Choices A, B, and C are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. While sexually transmitted diseases, certain occupational exposures, and recurrent urinary tract infections may pose other health risks, they are not specifically associated with an elevated risk of bladder cancer.
2. A patient presents with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the priority?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Chest X-ray
- D. Serum electrolytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a patient presenting with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, the priority diagnostic test is an Electrocardiogram (ECG) to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG can quickly identify changes indicative of ischemia or infarction, guiding prompt management. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) may provide some information but is not the primary test for evaluating chest pain related to myocardial infarction. A Chest X-ray can be useful in assessing lung pathologies or certain cardiac conditions; however, it does not provide immediate information on myocardial infarction, making it a secondary option in this scenario. Serum electrolytes may become important in later stages but do not offer immediate insights into myocardial infarction. Therefore, they are a lower priority compared to obtaining an ECG for timely diagnosis and intervention.
3. A client with an oversecretion of renin has a health history reviewed by a nurse. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding?
- A. Alzheimer’s disease
- B. Hypertension
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Viral hepatitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Renin is secreted in response to low blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels. Excessive renin secretion can lead to persistent hypertension. Renin plays no role in Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis. Therefore, the correct correlation with oversecretion of renin is hypertension.
4. What should the nurse do before an echocardiogram for a client who has had a myocardial infarction?
- A. Ensuring no food or drink for 4 hours before the procedure
- B. Obtaining informed consent from the client
- C. Assessing for any history of iodine or shellfish allergies
- D. Informing the client about the painless nature and duration of the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that the echocardiogram is a painless procedure that usually takes 30 to 60 minutes to complete. Echocardiography is a noninvasive, risk-free, and pain-free test that uses ultrasound to evaluate the heart's structure and motion. There is no need for special preparation before the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because imposing nothing-by-mouth status, obtaining informed consent, and assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish are not necessary steps before an echocardiogram.
5. The client with diabetes mellitus is being taught how to prevent or delay chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client statements indicate a lack of understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. I can continue to take an aspirin every 4 to 8 hours for my pain.
- B. My weight should be maintained at a body mass index of 30.
- C. Smoking should be stopped as soon as possible.
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Both statements A and B indicate a lack of understanding of CKD prevention. Taking aspirin every 4 to 8 hours can lead to kidney damage, and maintaining a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is considered overweight, which can increase the risk of developing CKD. Statement C, on the other hand, correctly addresses smoking cessation, which is crucial in preventing CKD. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect as they do not align with CKD prevention strategies, making option D the correct choice.
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