HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client with gouty arthritis reports tenderness and swelling of the right ankle and great toe. The nurse observes the area of inflammation extends above the ankle. The client receives prescriptions for colchicine and indomethacin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Eat high-protein foods to achieve ideal body weight
- B. Drink at least 8 cups (1920mL) of water per day
- C. Use an electric heating pad when pain is at its worst
- D. Encourage active range of motion to prevent stiffness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to drink at least 8 cups (1920mL) of water per day. Adequate hydration helps to prevent the formation of uric acid crystals, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because while maintaining a healthy weight is important, it doesn't directly address gout management. Choice C is incorrect because using an electric heating pad can worsen inflammation. Choice D is incorrect because active range of motion may exacerbate pain and inflammation in the affected joints.
2. During spring break, a young adult presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?
- A. Initiate isolation precautions
- B. Administer an antipyretic
- C. Draw blood cultures
- D. Prepare for lumbar puncture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate isolation precautions. This is the priority action because the patient presents with symptoms that could be indicative of meningitis, an infectious disease that requires isolation to prevent its spread. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help manage the fever but does not address the need for isolation. Drawing blood cultures (Choice C) and preparing for a lumbar puncture (Choice D) are important steps in diagnosing meningitis but should come after initiating isolation precautions to prevent potential transmission of the infection to others.
3. A healthcare professional is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm above the carina. The healthcare professional interprets that the tube is positioned above:
- A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring
- B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea
- C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi
- D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus due to the natural curvature of the airway. This positioning is dangerous as only the right lung will be ventilated. It can be identified as only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the specific anatomical landmark mentioned in the scenario.
4. Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?
- A. Breast self-examinations are not necessary if annual mammograms are obtained.
- B. Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron.
- C. Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings.
- D. Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most important information to provide a post-menopausal female client regarding mammograms is that yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings. It is crucial for post-menopausal women to continue regular mammograms as they are at a higher risk for breast cancer. Option A is incorrect as breast self-examinations are still recommended in addition to mammograms. Option B is not the most important information compared to the importance of regular mammograms. Option D is not the most important advice for all post-menopausal females but specifically for those at high risk, indicating a more targeted approach.
5. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC).
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. International normalized ratio (INR).
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.
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