a client with gouty arthritis reports tenderness and swelling of the right ankle and great toe the nurse observes the area of inflammation extends abo
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HESI RN

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A client with gouty arthritis reports tenderness and swelling of the right ankle and great toe. The nurse observes the area of inflammation extends above the ankle. The client receives prescriptions for colchicine and indomethacin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to drink at least 8 cups (1920mL) of water per day. Adequate hydration helps to prevent the formation of uric acid crystals, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because while maintaining a healthy weight is important, it doesn't directly address gout management. Choice C is incorrect because using an electric heating pad can worsen inflammation. Choice D is incorrect because active range of motion may exacerbate pain and inflammation in the affected joints.

2. A young adult is burned when wearing a shirt that was splashed with lighter fluid and caught on fire while attempting to light a charcoal grill. The client ripped off the shirt immediately, without unbuttoning the sleeves, which caused circumferential burns to both wrists. When the client is admitted, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring pulse intensity is the priority to ensure circulation is not compromised due to circumferential burns.

3. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of a cephalosporin medication to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 weeks. The nurse notes ulcers on the patient’s tongue and buccal mucosa. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin to the physician as the patient's symptoms may indicate a superinfection that requires treatment. Holding the drug is not necessary unless directed by the provider. Culturing the lesions is not indicated for this situation. There is no evidence to suggest impending anaphylaxis based on the patient's symptoms.

4. A patient’s serum osmolality is 305 mOsm/kg. Which term describes this patient’s body fluid osmolality?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct term to describe a patient with a serum osmolality of 305 mOsm/kg is 'hyperosmolar.' Normal osmolality ranges from 280 to 300 mOsm/kg. A patient with an osmolality above this range is considered hyperosmolar. Choice A ('Iso-osmolar') implies an equal osmolality, which is not the case in this scenario. Choice B ('Hypo-osmolar') suggests a lower osmolality, which is incorrect based on the provided serum osmolality value. Choice D ('Isotonic') refers to a solution having the same osmolality as another solution, not describing the specific scenario of this patient being above the normal range.

5. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client who has just undergone surgery experiences sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea, indicating possible pulmonary embolism, the immediate priority for the nurse is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula. This intervention aims to improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress, which is crucial in the setting of a potential pulmonary embolism. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's respiratory status comes first. While attaching the client to a cardiac monitor is important for monitoring, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation. Ensuring IV line patency is relevant for overall client care but is not the priority when a client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention.

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