HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. The nurse is caring for a 2-day old neonate who has not passed meconium and has a swollen abdomen. The healthcare provider reviews the flat plate X-ray of the abdomen and makes a tentative diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease. Which pathophysiological process is consistent with this neonate's clinical picture?
- A. The congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to large intestine produces no peristalsis.
- B. Pyloric obstruction causes reflux and projectile hematemesis.
- C. Partial imperforated anal opening limits passage of stools.
- D. Peristalsis moving against the intestinal obstruction causing hyperactivity of the bowel.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is caused by the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the large intestine, leading to a lack of peristalsis and obstruction.
2. An expectant father tells the LPN/LVN he fears that his wife 'is losing her mind.' He states she is constantly rubbing her abdomen and talking to the baby, and that she actually reprimands the baby when it moves too much. What recommendation should the nurse make to this expectant father?
- A. Reassure him that these are normal reactions to pregnancy and suggest that he discuss his concerns with the childbirth education nurse.
- B. Help him understand that his wife is experiencing normal maternal behaviors and bonding with the baby, and reassure him that these actions are positive.
- C. Ask him to observe his wife's behavior carefully for the next few weeks and report any similar behavior to the nurse at the next prenatal visit.
- D. Let him know that these behaviors are part of normal maternal-fetal bonding which occur once the mother feels fetal movement.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The father's concerns about his wife's behaviors can be addressed by explaining that behaviors like talking to the baby and responding to fetal movements are part of normal maternal-fetal bonding. These actions indicate that the mother is connecting with the baby and are positive signs of a healthy pregnancy. The nurse should reassure the father that these behaviors are common and beneficial for the mother-baby relationship during pregnancy.
3. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
- A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
- B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
- C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
- D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.
4. At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. The LPN/LVN obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission, the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Check the hematocrit results.
- B. Administer pain medication.
- C. Increase the rate of IV fluids.
- D. Monitor the client for contractions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest hypovolemic shock, possibly due to an ectopic pregnancy. Increasing IV fluids is crucial to stabilize the client by improving blood pressure and perfusion. This intervention helps address the underlying issue of hypovolemia and supports the client's hemodynamic status, which takes priority in this emergent situation.
5. The nurse is planning care for a 4-year-old girl diagnosed with a developmental disability. What should be the primary focus of treatment for this child?
- A. Teach her social skills.
- B. Assist in preventing further disability.
- C. Ensure her participation in group activities.
- D. Help her achieve her maximum potential.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary focus of treatment for a child diagnosed with a developmental disability should be helping them achieve their maximum potential. This approach aims to optimize the child's physical, emotional, cognitive, and social abilities, focusing on enhancing their overall well-being and quality of life. By supporting the child in reaching their highest level of functioning, caregivers can promote independence, self-esteem, and personal growth, which are essential components of holistic care for individuals with developmental disabilities. Teaching social skills (choice A) is important but is just one aspect of the comprehensive care needed. Preventing further disability (choice B) may not always be entirely achievable, but maximizing potential is a more realistic goal. Ensuring participation in group activities (choice C) is valuable for social development, but the primary focus should be on overall potential and well-being.
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