Nursing Elites

1. What advice is most important for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy experiencing nausea?

• A. Practice relaxation techniques when nausea begins.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 3 quarts daily.
• C. Avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking.
• D. Eliminate snacks between meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the first trimester of pregnancy, it is crucial to advise pregnant clients to avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking. These substances can worsen nausea and harm fetal development. By eliminating these substances, the client can help alleviate nausea and create a healthier environment for the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in managing nausea during the first trimester. While relaxation techniques may help, avoiding harmful substances like alcohol, caffeine, and smoking takes precedence. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but not as crucial as avoiding harmful substances. Eliminating snacks between meals may not be necessary for all clients and is not directly related to managing nausea in the first trimester.

2. After two miscarriages, a client is instructed to increase her daily intake of foods that include folic acid. The client does not like green leafy vegetables and states she is allergic to soy. Which food should the nurse suggest that the client eat to obtain folic acid?

• A. Strawberries.
• B. Yogurt.
• C. Collard greens.
• D. Whole milk.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Collard greens are a good source of folic acid, which is important for preventing neural tube defects, especially in clients with a history of miscarriages. Since the client does not like green leafy vegetables, collard greens could be suggested as an alternative source of folic acid. Yogurt and whole milk do not contain significant amounts of folic acid, and while strawberries are a healthy choice, they are not a high source of folic acid compared to collard greens.

3. A new mother who is breastfeeding her 4-week-old infant and has type 1 diabetes reports that her insulin needs have decreased since the birth of her child. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Inform her that a decreased need for insulin occurs while breastfeeding.
• B. Counsel her to increase her caloric intake.
• C. Advise the client to breastfeed more frequently.
• D. Schedule an appointment for the client with the diabetic nurse educator.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. During breastfeeding, insulin needs often decrease due to the metabolic demands of milk production. Therefore, the nurse should inform the client that this decrease in insulin requirements is a normal response to breastfeeding. Choice B is incorrect as increasing caloric intake is not directly related to the decrease in insulin needs during breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to breastfeed more frequently does not address the issue of decreased insulin needs. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling an appointment with the diabetic nurse educator is not necessary at this point since the decreased need for insulin is a common physiological response to breastfeeding.

4. At 35 weeks gestation, a client complains of 'pain whenever the baby moves.' The nurse notes a temperature of 101.2 F (38.4 C) with severe abdominal or uterine tenderness on palpation. What condition do these findings indicate?

• A. Round ligament strain.
• B. Chorioamnionitis.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Viral infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of fever and abdominal tenderness, along with the gestational age, are classic signs of chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid. Chorioamnionitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Round ligament strain (Choice A) typically presents with sharp, stabbing pain on the sides of the abdomen and is not associated with fever or uterine tenderness. Abruptio placentae (Choice C) presents with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain, often with a board-like uterus. Viral infections (Choice D) may present with a variety of symptoms, but the combination of fever, abdominal tenderness, and gestational age in this scenario points more towards chorioamnionitis.

5. When preparing a class on newborn care for expectant parents, what content should be taught concerning the newborn infant born at term gestation?

• A. Milia are white marks caused by sebaceous glands and typically resolve within 2 to 4 weeks.
• B. Meconium is the first stool and is typically dark green or black in color.
• C. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance mainly found in skin folds, providing a protective layer.
• D. Pseudostrabismus in newborns usually self-resolves without the need for intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that acts as a protective barrier on the skin of newborns, particularly present in skin folds. It helps to prevent dehydration and protect the delicate skin of the newborn from the amniotic fluid in utero. Educating expectant parents about the presence and function of vernix caseosa can help them understand the importance of its preservation during the immediate postnatal period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the protective function of vernix caseosa in newborns. Milia are small, white bumps on the skin due to blocked oil glands, meconium is the first stool of a newborn and is typically dark green or black in color, and pseudostrabismus refers to false appearance of misalignment of the eyes, which usually resolves on its own without intervention.

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