HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. During the admission procedure of a 6-year-old, the child states, 'I’m going to have an operation.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this child?
- A. Are you scared?
- B. We’re going to do everything we can to take very good care of you.
- C. Tell me what an operation is.
- D. I’m glad your mother told you why you were coming to the hospital.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide reassurance and express care to alleviate the child's anxiety about the upcoming operation. By reassuring the child that everything will be done to take very good care of them, the nurse helps build trust and comfort, creating a positive and supportive environment for the child.
2. What is the best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum?
- A. Administer prescribed IV solution.
- B. Give oral rehydration solution.
- C. Encourage small, frequent meals.
- D. Offer ginger tea to reduce nausea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is to administer the prescribed IV solution. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering IV fluids helps in managing dehydration, replenishing electrolytes, and providing the necessary hydration for both the mother and the fetus. Giving oral rehydration solution (Choice B) may not be sufficient for severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum where IV fluids are required. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) may not be effective as the woman may not be able to tolerate oral intake. Offering ginger tea (Choice D) is not the most appropriate intervention for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it may not provide adequate hydration or electrolyte balance needed in severe cases.
3. A client who had her first baby three months ago and is breastfeeding her infant tells the nurse that she is currently using the same diaphragm that she used before becoming pregnant. What information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. Use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm is obtained.
- B. After weaning, the diaphragm should be resized.
- C. Avoid intercourse during ovulation until the diaphragm size is reassessed.
- D. If weight gain during pregnancy was no more than 20 pounds, the diaphragm is safe to use.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm that fits correctly post-pregnancy is obtained. It is essential to ensure proper fit for effective contraception, making it crucial to use an alternative method until the diaphragm is resized.
4. The LPN/LVN is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse calculates that the woman's next fertile period is
- A. January 14-15.
- B. January 22-23.
- C. January 30-31.
- D. February 6-7.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the fertile period, subtract 14 days from the length of the woman's menstrual cycle. In this case, 36-14 = 22. Counting forward from the first day of the last menstrual period (January 8), the fertile period falls around January 30-31. This is because ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, marking the fertile window for conception.
5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
- B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
- C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the XXX muscle groups of males.
- D. Spinal cord damage due to birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene mutation causing DMD is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so if the X chromosome they inherit from their mother carries the mutated gene, they will develop DMD. Females have two X chromosomes, so they are carriers of the gene but are usually not affected by the disease. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that DMD is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family.
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