Nursing Elites

1. Upon admission to the prenatal clinic, a 23-year-old woman informs the nurse that her last menstrual period began on February 15, and that previously her periods were regular. Her pregnancy test is positive. What is this client's expected date of delivery (EDD)?

• A. November 22.
• B. November 8.
• C. December 22.
• D. October 22.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the expected date of delivery (EDD) using Nägele's rule, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) which is February 15, resulting in February 22. Then, subtract 3 months from February 22, which gives November 22 as the estimated due date.

2. A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalohematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Poor feeding.
• C. Brain injury.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum. As the blood breaks down, there is an increased risk of jaundice due to the release of bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Jaundice is a common complication associated with cephalohematoma in neonates. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the neonate for signs of jaundice and manage it accordingly.

3. A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit
• B. Administer the scheduled dose
• C. Calculate the safe dose range
• D. Review the serum digoxin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

4. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

5. A 4-year-old boy presents with a rash and is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). What is the most appropriate intervention to manage this condition?

• A. Administer oral acyclovir.
• B. Apply calamine lotion to soothe itching.
• C. Encourage scratching to relieve itching.
• D. Encourage bed rest to avoid spreading the rash.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing varicella (chickenpox) in a 4-year-old child is to apply calamine lotion to soothe itching. Calamine lotion helps alleviate the itching associated with the chickenpox rash, providing relief to the child. It is important to discourage scratching to prevent complications such as scarring or secondary bacterial infections. Encouraging bed rest can be beneficial for comfort but is not the primary intervention to manage chickenpox.

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