Nursing Elites

1. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?

• A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
• B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
• C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
• D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.

2. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Clonidine hydrochloride
• B. Carbamazepine
• C. Furosemide
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.

3. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home, in active labor, and feeling the urge to push. What information should the nurse prioritize obtaining?

• A. Color and consistency of fluid.
• B. Estimated amount of fluid.
• C. Any odor noted at the rupture of membranes.
• D. Time of membrane rupture.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is crucial as it can indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests potential fetal distress. This information guides the need for further assessments and interventions to ensure the well-being of the mother and fetus. Estimating the amount of fluid is not as critical as determining the color and consistency to identify fetal distress. While noting any odor is important, it is secondary to assessing the fluid itself. Knowing the time of membrane rupture is helpful but not as crucial as evaluating the characteristics of the amniotic fluid.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes magnesium sulfate 6 grams intravenously (IV) to be infused over 20 minutes for a client with preterm labor. The IV bag contains magnesium sulfate 20 grams in dextrose 5% in water 500 mL. How many mL/hour should the nurse set the infusion pump?

• A. 150 mL/hour
• B. 250 mL/hour
• C. 50 mL/hour
• D. 275 mL/hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, first, determine the total volume to be infused (6 grams of magnesium sulfate) over a specific time frame (20 minutes). Then, calculate the concentration of magnesium sulfate in the IV bag to determine the mL/hour rate. The IV bag contains 20 grams of magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of solution, which means there are 4 grams of magnesium sulfate per 100 mL. Since 6 grams are required, the nurse should set the pump to deliver 150 mL/hour to infuse the prescribed dose over 20 minutes. Choice B, 250 mL/hour, is incorrect because it miscalculates the amount of magnesium sulfate infused per hour. Choice C, 50 mL/hour, is incorrect as it is too slow to deliver the required dose in the specified time frame. Choice D, 275 mL/hour, is incorrect as it overestimates the infusion rate and would deliver the dose too quickly.

5. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?

• A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
• B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
• C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
• D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.

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