Nursing Elites

1. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?

• A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
• B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
• C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
• D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.

2. During an examination for possible cryptorchidism in an infant, what technique should be used?

• A. Place the infant in a warm room and use a calm approach.
• B. Hold the scrotum and palpate gently.
• C. Cleanse the penis with an antiseptic-soaked pad.
• D. Position the infant in a warm room to prevent muscle contraction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an infant for cryptorchidism, it is important to position the infant in a warm room to prevent muscle contraction, which could cause the testes to retract. Placing the infant in a side-lying position may not be necessary for this specific examination. Holding the penis or retracting the foreskin is not relevant to the assessment for cryptorchidism. Cleansing the penis with an antiseptic pad is not indicated for this examination.

3. In developing a teaching plan for expectant parents, the nurse plans to include information about when the parents can expect the infant's fontanels to close. The LPN/LVN bases the explanation on knowledge that for the normal newborn, the

• A. anterior fontanel closes at 2 to 4 months and the posterior by the end of the first week.
• B. anterior fontanel closes at 5 to 7 months and the posterior by the end of the second week.
• C. anterior fontanel closes at 8 to 11 months and the posterior by the end of the first month.
• D. anterior fontanel closes at 12 to 18 months and the posterior by the end of the second month.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The anterior fontanel typically closes between 12 to 18 months, while the posterior fontanel usually closes by the end of the second month. It is important for parents to know these timeframes as it helps in monitoring the normal growth and development of their newborn. Delayed closure of fontanels may indicate potential health issues, and early closure may also warrant further evaluation by healthcare providers.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

5. When a client delivers a viable infant but experiences excessive uncontrolled vaginal bleeding after the IV Pitocin infusion, what information is most important for the nurse to provide when notifying the healthcare provider?

• A. Maternal blood pressure
• B. Estimated blood loss
• C. Length of labor
• D. Amount of IV fluids administered

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is experiencing excessive uncontrolled vaginal bleeding post-delivery, the most crucial information for the nurse to provide the healthcare provider is the maternal blood pressure. Maternal blood pressure can help assess the severity of the bleeding and guide immediate interventions to stabilize the client's condition. Estimated blood loss, length of labor, and amount of IV fluids administered are important pieces of information but in this scenario, maternal blood pressure takes precedence as it directly indicates the client's current hemodynamic status.

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