Nursing Elites

1. While auscultating a client's heart sounds, which description should the nurse use to document a swishing sound related to blood turbulence or valvular defect?

• A. S1 S2
• B. S1 S2 S3
• C. Murmur
• D. Pericardial friction rub

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Murmur.' A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound associated with blood turbulence caused by the heart or a valvular defect. Choices 'A: S1 S2' and 'B: S1 S2 S3' refer to normal heart sounds, specifically the closure of heart valves. 'D: Pericardial friction rub' is a dry, rubbing or grating sound caused by inflammation of the pericardial sac and is not associated with blood flow or valvular issues.

2. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that symptoms of an acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response?

• A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm
• B. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction
• C. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse
• D. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation. During an acute asthma episode, bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation occur, leading to difficulty breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm (Choice A) are part of the pathophysiology of asthma but do not fully explain the symptoms during an acute episode. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction (Choice B) are also seen in asthma but are not the primary cause of acute symptoms. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse (Choice C) are not typical features of an acute asthma episode.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a hemodialysis session. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum chloride

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum sodium. In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis, monitoring serum sodium levels closely is essential. Hemodialysis can cause rapid shifts in sodium levels, leading to electrolyte imbalances. While serum potassium (choice A) is important to monitor in CKD, it is not the most crucial before hemodialysis. Serum creatinine (choice B) is an indicator of kidney function but is not the most immediate concern before hemodialysis. Serum chloride (choice D) is not typically the primary electrolyte of concern in CKD patients before hemodialysis.

4. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
• C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
• D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

5. A client with gestational diabetes, at 39 weeks of gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivering the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
• B. Encourage the client to move to a hands-and-knees position
• C. Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen
• D. Lower the head of the bed and apply suprapubic pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of shoulder dystocia, the priority intervention is to assist the client in sharply flexing her thighs up against the abdomen (McRoberts maneuver). This action helps to widen the pelvic outlet. Encouraging the client to move to a hands-and-knees position may also be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth and applying suprapubic pressure are not appropriate initial interventions for shoulder dystocia.

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