HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client who has just returned from surgery is shivering uncontrollably. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Offer the client a warm blanket
- B. Apply warm blankets and monitor the client's temperature
- C. Place a warm blanket in the client's bed before transferring the client from the stretcher
- D. Administer a prescribed muscle relaxant
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Applying warm blankets and monitoring the client's temperature is the best action to manage postoperative shivering. Shivering after surgery can be a common response due to factors like exposure to cold, pain, or anesthesia effects. Providing warmth through blankets can help regulate the client's body temperature and alleviate shivering. Monitoring the client's temperature is essential to ensure it returns to a normal range. Option A is not as comprehensive as option B, which includes both providing warmth and monitoring the client. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on preparing the bed rather than addressing the client's immediate need for warmth. Option D is not appropriate without further assessment or prescription for a muscle relaxant to address shivering.
2. The nurse observes an adolescent client preparing to administer a prescribed corticosteroid medication using a metered dose inhaler. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remind the client to hold their breath after inhaling the medication
- B. Confirm that the client has correctly shaken the inhaler
- C. Affirm that the client has correctly positioned the inhaler
- D. Ask the client if they have a spacer to use for this medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Reminding the client to hold their breath after inhaling the medication is crucial as it helps ensure the medication is absorbed into the lungs. Option B is incorrect because shaking the inhaler is not directly related to the client's inhalation technique. Option C is incorrect as correct positioning of the inhaler is important but not the immediate action needed in this situation. Option D is incorrect as asking about the spacer is not the most relevant action to take at this moment.
3. The nurse determines that a client's pupils constrict as they change focus from a far object. What documentation should the nurse enter about this finding?
- A. Pupils reactive to accommodation.
- B. Nystagmus present with pupillary focus.
- C. Peripheral vision intact.
- D. Consensual pupillary constriction present.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils reactive to accommodation.' When pupils constrict as the client changes focus from a far object to a near one, it indicates a normal response known as accommodation. This physiological process allows the eyes to adjust their focus, and it is a healthy finding. Choice B is incorrect because nystagmus is an involuntary eye movement, not related to the change in focus. Choice C is irrelevant to the scenario and does not describe the observed finding. Choice D refers to pupillary constriction in response to light, not accommodation to changes in focus.
4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Chest X-ray
- B. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Echocardiogram. An echocardiogram should be performed first to assess ventricular function and evaluate the cause of shortness of breath and crackles in a client with heart failure. An echocardiogram provides valuable information about the heart's structure and function, helping to identify potential issues related to heart failure. Chest X-ray (Choice A) may be done to assess for changes in heart size or fluid in the lungs but does not directly assess heart function. Arterial blood gases (Choice B) may provide information about oxygenation but do not directly evaluate heart function. An electrocardiogram (Choice D) assesses the heart's electrical activity but does not provide detailed information about ventricular function, which is crucial in heart failure management.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?
- A. Irregular pulse.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Urinary frequency.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
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