HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Place the side rails in an up position.
- B. Assist the UAP in turning the client.
- C. Provide instructions on proper bed-making techniques.
- D. Ask the client if they are comfortable.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should first place the side rails in an up position. This action is crucial to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Choice B is incorrect as moving or turning the client is not necessary at this point. Choice C is not a priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Choice D, asking the client if they are comfortable, though important, should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.
2. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When medications with a similar action are administered, an additive effect occurs that is the sum of the effects of each medication. In this case, several medications that all lower blood pressure, when administered together, resulted in hypotension.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles in a client with COPD indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests that the patient is struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not critically low, while a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to underlying conditions like pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention as the use of accessory muscles does.
4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
- A. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
- B. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dl
- D. Platelet count of 90,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm3 is low and concerning for a client scheduled for a renal biopsy, as it increases the risk of bleeding. Thrombocytopenia, indicated by a low platelet count, can lead to impaired blood clotting, posing a significant risk of bleeding during or after the biopsy procedure. Elevated serum creatinine levels may be expected in chronic kidney disease but are not directly related to bleeding risk during a renal biopsy. Prothrombin time and hemoglobin levels are not as directly relevant to the bleeding risk associated with a renal biopsy as platelet count.
5. A client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I should avoid eating spicy foods to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
- B. ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms.’
- C. ‘I should avoid smoking to prevent exacerbation of my symptoms.’
- D. ‘I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The corrected question assesses the client's understanding of lifestyle modifications for peptic ulcer disease. Choice D, 'I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer,' is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates that the client has a good grasp of the teaching provided, as alcohol can indeed irritate peptic ulcers. Choices A, B, and C are all accurate statements that reflect appropriate understanding of managing peptic ulcer disease and do not indicate a need for further teaching.
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