HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Place the side rails in an up position.
- B. Assist the UAP in turning the client.
- C. Provide instructions on proper bed-making techniques.
- D. Ask the client if they are comfortable.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should first place the side rails in an up position. This action is crucial to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Choice B is incorrect as moving or turning the client is not necessary at this point. Choice C is not a priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Choice D, asking the client if they are comfortable, though important, should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. INR of 3.5
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Headache
- D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.
3. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?
- A. Ask a more experienced nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day
- B. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub
- C. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases.
- D. Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration. Surgical hand scrubs should last for 5 to 10 minutes, ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should be guided to complete the scrub properly rather than having someone else do it. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the duration of the hand scrub. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a 3-minute hand scrub is sufficient, which is inadequate for proper preparation before surgery.
4. The client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
- B. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
- C. Serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate intervention is required to lower potassium levels. Choice B, serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL, is elevated but expected in ESRD due to impaired kidney function. Choice C, serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and not typically a priority in this situation. Choice D, hemoglobin of 10 g/dL, is slightly low but not an immediate concern for a client scheduled for hemodialysis unless significantly lower and causing severe symptoms.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on supplemental oxygen. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not an immediate concern. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
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