the nurse enters a clients room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel uap making an occupied bed as seen in the picture what action should t
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam

1. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed as seen in the picture. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should first place the side rails in an up position. This action is crucial to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Choice B is incorrect as moving or turning the client is not necessary at this point. Choice C is not a priority when immediate safety concerns are present. Choice D, asking the client if they are comfortable, though important, should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. In COPD, especially when the client is receiving diuretics or corticosteroids, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. These medications can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Arterial blood gas (choice A) values are important in assessing respiratory status but are not the primary concern related to medication side effects. Serum sodium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are also important, but in the context of COPD exacerbation and medication effects, potassium monitoring takes precedence.

3. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse a client's readiness for pulmonary function tests?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expresses an understanding of the procedure.' This choice indicates that the client is mentally prepared for the pulmonary function tests, as understanding the procedure shows readiness and cooperation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'NPO for 6 hrs,' pertains to fasting status and is not directly related to readiness for the test. Choice C, 'No known drug allergies,' is important information but does not specifically indicate readiness for pulmonary function tests. Choice D, 'Intravenous access intact,' is related to vascular access and not a direct indicator of readiness for the pulmonary function tests.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with jaundice. Which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are important in liver cirrhosis but are not the most concerning for acute neurological deterioration associated with hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high and should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is elevated in renal dysfunction but not the most critical value to report before hemodialysis. Serum calcium (Choice C) and serum bicarbonate (Choice D) levels are within normal limits and are not immediate concerns before hemodialysis.

Similar Questions

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