Nursing Elites

1. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before hemodialysis in a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD), monitoring serum potassium closely is crucial. ESRD patients are at risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to severe cardiac complications. Checking serum potassium levels helps in assessing and managing this electrolyte imbalance. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is a marker of kidney function but is not the most critical value to monitor before hemodialysis. Serum sodium (Choice C) may be affected in renal disease, but potassium is a more crucial electrolyte to monitor. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing anemia in ESRD but is not the primary focus before hemodialysis.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?

• A. Use of accessory muscles
• B. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• C. Carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg
• D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A carbon dioxide level of 45 mmHg is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, as it may indicate carbon dioxide retention and requires immediate intervention. Options A, B, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. While the use of accessory muscles, an oxygen saturation of 94%, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute are important to monitor in a client with COPD, they do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like an elevated carbon dioxide level does.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a blood glucose level.
• B. Administer an anticoagulant as prescribed.
• C. Perform a neurological assessment.
• D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the priority in this situation as it helps in evaluating the cause of the new onset of confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. This assessment will provide crucial information about the client's neurological status, which can guide further interventions. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice A) is important but should not be the first step when dealing with a new onset of confusion. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice B) or aspirin (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the underlying cause, but assessing the neurological status comes first to determine the appropriate course of action.

4. For the past 24 hours, an antidiarrheal agent, diphenoxylate, has been administered to a bedridden, older client with infectious gastroenteritis. Which finding requires the nurse to take further action?

• A. Tented skin turgor
• B. Decreased bowel sounds
• C. Persistent diarrhea
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tented skin turgor is a sign of dehydration, which can be exacerbated by the use of antidiarrheals in clients with gastroenteritis. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less resilient when pinched. Therefore, the nurse should take immediate action upon noticing tented skin turgor to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreased bowel sounds, persistent diarrhea, and dehydration are expected findings in a client with gastroenteritis who has been administered an antidiarrheal agent.

5. An elderly female client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in her right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of her symptoms?

• A. Destruction of joint cartilage.
• B. Inflammation of synovial membrane.
• C. Formation of bone spurs.
• D. Reduction of joint space.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Osteoarthritis typically involves the destruction of joint cartilage, leading to pain and stiffness. This destruction of joint cartilage results in bone rubbing against bone, causing pain and reduced mobility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Inflammation of the synovial membrane (choice B) is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Formation of bone spurs (choice C) and reduction of joint space (choice D) are manifestations that can occur as a result of osteoarthritis but are not the primary pathology responsible for the symptoms of pain and stiffness.

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