Nursing Elites

1. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment
• B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
• C. Have the mother check the child's temperature every 4 hours for the next 24 hours
• D. Transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.

2. A client who is receiving long-term steroid therapy complains of blurred vision. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the client to use artificial tears to lubricate the eyes
• B. Administer an ophthalmic antibiotic as prescribed
• C. Arrange for the client to see an optometrist for an eye exam
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Option D). Blurred vision in a client on long-term steroid therapy can be a sign of serious conditions like cataracts or glaucoma, which need urgent medical evaluation and management. Instructing the client to use artificial tears (Option A) may help with dry eyes but does not address the underlying cause of blurred vision. Administering an ophthalmic antibiotic (Option B) is not indicated unless there is a specific infection present. Referring the client to an optometrist for an eye exam (Option C) may delay necessary medical intervention by the healthcare provider, who should be involved promptly in this situation.

3. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Uncontrollable drooling.
• B. Inability to raise voice.
• C. Tingling of extremities.
• D. Eyelid drooping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum sodium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum creatinine level
• D. Serum glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. This helps in assessing kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated potassium levels can result from impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important in heart failure but not specifically related to left-sided heart failure. Serum creatinine (choice C) reflects kidney function but is not the most critical value to monitor in this case. Serum glucose level (choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing left-sided heart failure.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer 15 grams of oral glucose
• C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
• D. Administer a glucagon injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.

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