HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client who is vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid containing hydrochloric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by the loss of acids such as hydrochloric acid from the body. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse should assess the client for metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because vomiting does not typically lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis.
2. A client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. I need to ask for an antibiotic when scheduling a dental appointment.
- B. I’ll need to check my blood sugar often to prevent hypoglycemia.
- C. The dose of my pain medication may have to be adjusted.
- D. The need to watch for bleeding with anticoagulants.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statements indicating a proper understanding of the teaching include the need for antibiotics for dental work, the potential need to adjust pain medication doses, and the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels. The statement about watching for bleeding with anticoagulants is not directly related to CKD and discharge instructions for this condition. Therefore, option A is correct, as it addresses relevant concerns for a client with CKD, while the other options are either unrelated or not specifically mentioned in the scenario.
3. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
- B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
- C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
- D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.
4. A client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months is being assessed by a nurse. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.)
- A. How much water do you drink every day?
- B. Do you take estrogen replacement therapy?
- C. Does anyone in your family have a history of cystitis?
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answers are all of the above (D). Asking about fluid intake (choice A) is important as it can affect the risk of cystitis. Estrogen levels (choice B) can also impact the likelihood of recurrent cystitis. Family history (choice C) is relevant as certain genetic factors can predispose individuals to cystitis. Cranberry juice, not grapefruit or orange juice, has been found to reduce the risk of bacterial cystitis by increasing the acidic pH. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are all pertinent questions to ask during the assessment of a client with recurrent bacterial cystitis.
5. A client is receiving Cilostazol (Pletal) for peripheral arterial disease causing intermittent claudication. The nurse determines this medication is effective when the client reports which of the following?
- A. I am having fewer aches and pains.
- B. I do not have headaches anymore.
- C. I am able to walk further without leg pain.
- D. My toes are turning grayish black in color.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cilostazol improves blood flow to the muscles, which helps alleviate symptoms of intermittent claudication. An improvement in walking distance without leg pain indicates the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A and B are not directly related to the expected outcome of Cilostazol therapy for intermittent claudication. Choice D is concerning for a potential adverse effect and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.
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