HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. The nurse is assessing a primigravida at 39-weeks gestation during a weekly prenatal visit. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate of 200 beats/minute.
- B. Mild ankle edema.
- C. Complaints of back pain.
- D. Decreased fetal movements.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 200 beats per minute is significantly elevated and requires immediate medical attention. This finding could indicate fetal distress, tachycardia, or other serious issues that need prompt evaluation. Mild ankle edema, complaints of back pain, and decreased fetal movements are common in pregnancy but are not as urgent or concerning as a high fetal heart rate.
2. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. After starting medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving away her belongings, and has an elevated mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making.
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective.
- D. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder shows signs of increased energy, giving away belongings, and an elevated mood, it could indicate a shift towards suicidal behavior. Therefore, the best intervention for the nurse is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk for suicide and provide necessary interventions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the potential risk of harm to the client and do not prioritize the immediate assessment required in this situation.
3. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
- B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
- C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
- D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.
4. An older male client with a history of diabetes mellitus, chronic gout, and osteoarthritis comes to the clinic with a bag of medication bottles. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Identify pills in the bag
- B. Review the client's medication schedule
- C. Assess the client's symptoms
- D. Educate the client about proper medication usage
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to identify pills in the bag first. This is essential to ensure the client is taking the correct medications and to prevent any potential medication errors. Reviewing the client's medication schedule (choice B) can come after identifying the pills to cross-reference the medications. Assessing the client's symptoms (choice C) is important but should follow identifying the medications. Educating the client about proper medication usage (choice D) is crucial but should be done after confirming the medications in the bag.
5. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.
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