Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a primigravida at 39-weeks gestation during a weekly prenatal visit. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate of 200 beats/minute.
• B. Mild ankle edema.
• C. Complaints of back pain.
• D. Decreased fetal movements.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 200 beats per minute is significantly elevated and requires immediate medical attention. This finding could indicate fetal distress, tachycardia, or other serious issues that need prompt evaluation. Mild ankle edema, complaints of back pain, and decreased fetal movements are common in pregnancy but are not as urgent or concerning as a high fetal heart rate.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Confusion and altered mental status
• D. Yellowing of the skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Confusion and altered mental status are the most concerning clinical findings in a client with cirrhosis because they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema (choice A) and increased abdominal girth (choice B) are common manifestations of cirrhosis but are not as acutely concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Yellowing of the skin (choice D) is due to jaundice, which is already present in the client and does not directly indicate a worsening condition like confusion and altered mental status.

3. During the initial visit, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present.
• B. Develop a client needs assessment and review it with the caregiver.
• C. Evaluate the caregiver's ability to care for the client's needs.
• D. Review with the caregiver the interventions provided each day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement during the initial visit is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is crucial for ensuring continuous and adequate care, especially for a bed-bound client with multiple sclerosis who relies heavily on the caregiver. While developing a client needs assessment (choice B) and evaluating the caregiver's ability (choice C) are important, understanding the care plan in the caregiver's absence takes precedence. Reviewing daily interventions with the caregiver (choice D) is valuable but not as critical as knowing the care plan during the caregiver's absence.

4. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates metabolic acidosis, which can occur due to the body compensating for chronic respiratory acidosis. This condition requires immediate intervention to restore the acid-base balance. Choice A, serum sodium of 135 mEq/L, is within normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, falls within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and is not typically affected by COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice D, serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, though elevated, is not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy and would require management but is not the most concerning value in this scenario.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.

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