a client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client fo
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. This test provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity. Choice B, Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, including the heart and lungs, but it does not directly assess for cardiac ischemia. Choice C, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), measures the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and assesses acid-base balance, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound of the heart that provides information about the heart's structure and function, but it is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing cardiac ischemia in this situation.

2. The charge nurse of the critical care unit informed at the beginning of the shift that a less than optimal number of registered nurses would be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse because they are at the highest risk for injury and complications. The client's age, diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, and the presence of a newly fractured femur along with the Foley catheter and wrist restraints indicate a need for close monitoring and care. Choice A is less critical as the client is stable post-appendectomy. Choice B, though experiencing symptoms, is not at the same level of risk as the client in Choice D. Choice C, while requiring oxygen support, does not have the same level of acuity and complexity as the client in Choice D.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.

4. A female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 760 ml. After vomiting 240 ml (1 cup), the nurse should document the remaining 760 ml as the fluid intake. Choice A (240 ml) is the amount vomited, not the total intake. Choice B (500 ml) and Choice D (1000 ml) are the total intake, not considering the vomiting.

5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dl. In a client with ESRD receiving hemodialysis, serum creatinine should be closely monitored. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A), serum potassium levels (Choice B), and serum sodium levels (Choice D) is also important in clients with ESRD, but the most crucial indicator of kidney function in this case is serum creatinine.

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