Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. This test provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity. Choice B, Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, including the heart and lungs, but it does not directly assess for cardiac ischemia. Choice C, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), measures the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and assesses acid-base balance, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound of the heart that provides information about the heart's structure and function, but it is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing cardiac ischemia in this situation.

2. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in care?

• A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
• B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
• C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
• D. Monitor for onset of polyuria greater than 150ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating daily renal laboratory studies is crucial in this scenario. The client has impaired renal function, recent GI bleeding, and is at risk for further kidney damage due to ibuprofen use. Monitoring renal labs helps assess kidney function and detect any progressive elevations, guiding further interventions. Option A is not directly related to renal function monitoring. Option C focuses more on urine appearance than renal function assessment. Option D mentions polyuria, which is excessive urine output, but the question describes a client with reduced renal output.

3. In determining the client position for insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter, it is most important for the nurse to recognize which client condition?

• A. High urinary pH
• B. Abdominal ascites
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orthopnea. If the client is orthopneic, the nurse needs to adapt the insertion position that does not place the client in a supine position. This means the head of the bed should be elevated as much as possible to facilitate catheter insertion without compromising the client's breathing. High urinary pH (choice A) is not directly relevant to the insertion position of a urinary catheter. Abdominal ascites (choice B) may impact the procedure due to abdominal distension but is not as crucial as orthopnea. Fever (choice D) does not specifically affect the client's position for urinary catheter insertion.

4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.0
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

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