HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?
- A. Explain how to use communication tools.
- B. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques.
- C. Encourage self-care and independence.
- D. Demonstrate how to clean the tracheostomy site.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for a client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is to teach tracheal suctioning techniques. Suctioning helps clear secretions and maintain an open airway, which is critical for the client's respiratory function and overall well-being. While communication tools, self-care, and cleaning the tracheostomy site are important aspects of care, ensuring proper suctioning techniques is crucial for preventing complications and ensuring the client's safety.
2. A client who is post-op day 1 after abdominal surgery reports pain at the incision site. The nurse notes the presence of a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
- B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
- C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to reinforce the dressing and document the findings. It is important to monitor the incision site closely after surgery, especially when there is a small amount of serosanguineous drainage. Reinforcing the dressing helps maintain cleanliness and pressure on the wound. Documenting the findings is crucial for tracking the client's progress and alerting healthcare providers if necessary. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not be needed if the current dressing is intact. Removing the dressing (Choice C) can increase the risk of contamination. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not the first step for minor drainage on post-op day 1.
3. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and diplopia. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?
- A. Monitor for signs of alcohol withdrawal.
- B. Administer thiamine as prescribed.
- C. Provide a quiet environment to reduce confusion.
- D. Initiate fall precautions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer thiamine as prescribed. This intervention is a priority for clients with chronic alcoholism to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious complication of thiamine deficiency. Monitoring for signs of alcohol withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Providing a quiet environment (choice C) may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy. Initiating fall precautions (choice D) is also important but not the priority compared to administering thiamine to prevent a life-threatening condition.
4. A client with chronic heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure receiving furosemide, crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing oxygen exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring and managing pulmonary congestion promptly are crucial to prevent worsening heart failure and respiratory compromise. The other options, while important to assess in a client with heart failure, do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like crackles in the lungs do. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute may be within the normal range for some individuals, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is relatively stable, and peripheral edema is a common manifestation of heart failure that should be monitored but does not require immediate intervention compared to pulmonary congestion.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, the use of accessory muscles is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention. This observation indicates increased work of breathing, suggesting respiratory distress. Addressing this issue promptly is crucial to prevent further respiratory compromise. Choice A, oxygen saturation of 90%, is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention unless it continues to decrease. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, is within normal limits for an adult and does not indicate an urgent issue. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, may be present in COPD due to secretions or inflammation but do not necessitate immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning signs.
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