Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse a client's readiness for pulmonary function tests?

• A. Expresses an understanding of the procedure.
• B. NPO for 6 hrs.
• C. No known drug allergies.
• D. Intravenous access intact.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expresses an understanding of the procedure.' This choice indicates that the client is mentally prepared for the pulmonary function tests, as understanding the procedure shows readiness and cooperation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'NPO for 6 hrs,' pertains to fasting status and is not directly related to readiness for the test. Choice C, 'No known drug allergies,' is important information but does not specifically indicate readiness for pulmonary function tests. Choice D, 'Intravenous access intact,' is related to vascular access and not a direct indicator of readiness for the pulmonary function tests.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is the first priority in managing a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy and if adjustments are needed. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is not the first priority. Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is important, but assessing the current oxygen saturation comes before administering more oxygen. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample may provide valuable information, but it is not the initial intervention needed in this situation.

3. A client's subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Collect a clean-catch specimen
• B. Administer prescribed antibiotics
• C. Perform a bladder scan
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to collect a clean-catch specimen. This is essential to diagnose the cause of the client's symptoms accurately before initiating any treatment. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) without confirming the diagnosis through a specimen collection can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Performing a bladder scan (Choice C) may not provide the necessary information to identify the specific cause of the symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is a general recommendation and may not address the underlying issue causing the symptoms.

4. A client who is at 10-weeks gestation calls the clinic because she has been vomiting for the past 24 hours. The nurse determines that the client has no fever. Which instructions should the nurse give to this client?

• A. Come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider
• B. Increase your fluid intake and rest at home
• C. Take over-the-counter antiemetics as needed
• D. Monitor your symptoms and call if they worsen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider. Persistent vomiting during pregnancy can lead to dehydration, which requires medical evaluation. Choice B is incorrect because solely increasing fluid intake and resting at home may not be sufficient to address the potential dehydration and underlying causes of vomiting. Choice C is not recommended without medical evaluation, as over-the-counter antiemetics should be used under healthcare provider guidance during pregnancy. Choice D is not the best option here because with persistent vomiting and risk of dehydration, immediate medical assessment is crucial to ensure the well-being of both the client and the fetus.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While monitoring electrolyte levels like serum potassium and sodium is important in overall client care, they are not specific to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is a component of INR and helps in monitoring warfarin therapy, but INR gives a standardized result that is independent of the laboratory method used, making it the preferred choice for monitoring warfarin therapy.

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