Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with COPD as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, patients often retain carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level suggests that the body is compensating for this respiratory acidosis by increasing bicarbonate levels to maintain balance. Therefore, a low serum bicarbonate level in this scenario is alarming. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not directly related to the acid-base imbalance seen in COPD.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is complaining of chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
• C. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is the first priority in assessing for ischemia or infarction in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction. This diagnostic test provides crucial information about the heart's electrical activity and helps in identifying any acute cardiac changes. Administering oxygen therapy and nitroglycerin can be important interventions, but obtaining an ECG takes precedence as it directly assesses the client's cardiac status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is also essential, but in this scenario, assessing for cardiac indications through an ECG is the initial step.

3. The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?

• A. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds
• B. Observe for edema around the ankles
• C. Measure the client's capillary glucose level
• D. Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can slow peristalsis and commonly cause constipation. By assessing the client's bowel sounds, the nurse can monitor for any signs of decreased bowel motility or potential constipation. Observing for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to hydromorphone administration. Measuring capillary glucose levels (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Counting the apical and radial pulses simultaneously (Choice D) is not specifically indicated in this scenario involving hydromorphone administration.

4. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes bleeding on the client's cast. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Apply a new cast to stop the bleeding
• D. Elevate the limb to reduce blood flow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After an open reduction of the tibia, bleeding on the cast can be a concern. Outlining the area with ink and monitoring it every 15 minutes is the appropriate action to assess if the bleeding is worsening, indicating the need for further intervention. This action allows for close observation without disturbing the cast. Choice B is incorrect because while notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate action is not always necessary if the bleeding is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because applying a new cast is not the standard intervention for bleeding on a cast. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the limb may not address the underlying cause of bleeding and may not be the most appropriate action at this time.

5. An 80-year-old male client with multiple chronic health problems becomes disoriented, agitated, and combative 24 hours after being admitted to the hospital. What nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Request a psychiatric consultation for the client.
• B. Reorient the client frequently to time, place, and person.
• C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medications to reduce agitation.
• D. Obtain an order for a sitter to stay with the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reorienting the client frequently is the most important nursing intervention in this scenario. It helps reduce confusion and agitation, which are common symptoms of acute delirium in hospitalized elderly clients. Requesting a psychiatric consult (choice A) may be necessary if the reorientation does not improve the client's condition or if there are underlying psychiatric concerns, but reorientation should be attempted first. Administering antipsychotic medications (choice C) should not be the initial intervention as they can have adverse effects in elderly individuals. Obtaining a sitter (choice D) may provide support but does not directly address the client's disorientation and agitation.

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