HESI RN TEST BANK

RN HESI Exit Exam

The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

    A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

    B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L

    C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L

    D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with COPD as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, patients often retain carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level suggests that the body is compensating for this respiratory acidosis by increasing bicarbonate levels to maintain balance. Therefore, a low serum bicarbonate level in this scenario is alarming. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not directly related to the acid-base imbalance seen in COPD.

While assisting a male client with muscular dystrophy (MD) to the bathroom, the nurse observes that he is awkward and clumsy. When he expresses his frustration and complains of hip discomfort, which intervention should the nurse implement?

  • A. Place a portable toilet next to the bed.
  • B. Assist the client with walking exercises.
  • C. Provide pain medication as prescribed.
  • D. Apply a heating pad to the affected hip.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placing a portable toilet next to the bed is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. It reduces the need for the client to walk long distances, thereby preventing falls and reducing discomfort. Choice B, assisting with walking exercises, would not be suitable for a client with muscular dystrophy who is experiencing awkwardness and clumsiness. Choice C, providing pain medication, may address the symptom but does not directly address the issue of reducing the need for walking. Choice D, applying a heating pad, may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of mobility and fall prevention.

A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?

  • A. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin with a full glass of water.’
  • B. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin as soon as I feel chest pain.’
  • C. ‘I can take up to three doses of nitroglycerin if needed.’
  • D. ‘I should call 911 if my chest pain does not improve after the first dose.’

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.

A client who developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) associated with small carcinoma of the lung is preparing for discharge. When teaching the client about self-management with demeclocycline (Declomycin), the nurse should instruct the client to report which condition to the healthcare provider?

  • A. Insomnia
  • B. Muscle cramping
  • C. Increased appetite
  • D. Anxiety

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle cramping. SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia due to increased ADH release. Demeclocycline is used to block the action of ADH. Muscle cramping can indicate electrolyte imbalances related to hyponatremia, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. Insomnia, increased appetite, and anxiety are not typically associated with the side effects or complications of demeclocycline or SIADH.

The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?

  • A. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds
  • B. Observe for edema around the ankles
  • C. Measure the client's capillary glucose level
  • D. Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can slow peristalsis and commonly cause constipation. By assessing the client's bowel sounds, the nurse can monitor for any signs of decreased bowel motility or potential constipation. Observing for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to hydromorphone administration. Measuring capillary glucose levels (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Counting the apical and radial pulses simultaneously (Choice D) is not specifically indicated in this scenario involving hydromorphone administration.

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