Nursing Elites

1. While taking vital signs, a critically ill male client grabs the nurse's hand and asks the nurse not to leave. What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Pull up a chair and sit beside the client's bed.
• B. Reassure the client that you will return shortly.
• C. Ask another nurse to stay with the client.
• D. Continue taking vital signs and then leave the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to pull up a chair and sit beside the client's bed. By doing so, the nurse can provide emotional support and comfort to the critically ill patient who is feeling vulnerable. Sitting with the client also shows empathy and a willingness to listen to the client's needs. Reassuring the client that the nurse will return shortly (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for emotional support. Asking another nurse to stay with the client (Choice C) may not establish the same level of connection and comfort as sitting with the client personally. Continuing to take vital signs and then leaving the room (Choice D) disregards the client's emotional needs in that moment.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with a history of COPD, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, necessitating immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it suggests the client is struggling to breathe adequately. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but may be expected in COPD patients; it requires monitoring and intervention but is not as immediately concerning as the use of accessory muscles. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is within a normal range and, although slightly elevated, may be a typical response to pneumonia. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) can be a common finding in pneumonia and are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the use of accessory muscles.

3. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Elevated hemoglobin
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the kidneys and other organs. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD but may not be as acutely concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin (choice C) can be an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and is not necessarily concerning. Low urine output (choice D) is important to monitor in CKD but may not be as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure in this context.

5. The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping with the child's dietary restrictions. Which foods are contraindicated for this child?

• A. Wheat products
• B. Foods sweetened with aspartame
• C. High-fat foods
• D. High-calorie foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Foods sweetened with aspartame. Aspartame should not be consumed by a child with PKU because it is converted to phenylalanine in the body, which can be harmful to individuals with PKU. Choice A (Wheat products) is not specifically contraindicated for PKU. Choice C (High-fat foods) and Choice D (High-calorie foods) are not typically restricted in PKU diets unless they contain high levels of phenylalanine.

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