Nursing Elites

1. A male client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), an antipsychotic medication, for the management of schizophrenia. Which client history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the first dose of this medication?

• A. History of depression
• B. History of cardiac arrhythmia
• C. History of seizures
• D. History of diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cardiac arrhythmia. Clozapine can lead to severe cardiovascular problems, making it crucial to report any history of cardiac arrhythmia to the healthcare provider before administering the medication. Choices A, C, and D are less concerning in this context as they are not directly associated with potential serious complications related to clozapine use.

2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Confusion and altered mental status
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are the most concerning clinical findings in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. These symptoms indicate worsening liver function and potential neurological complications, requiring immediate medical attention. Increased abdominal girth may suggest ascites, yellowing of the skin can indicate jaundice, and peripheral edema may be related to fluid retention, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, confusion and altered mental status take precedence due to the risk of rapid deterioration and the need for prompt management.

3. Following insertion of a LeVeen shunt in a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the shunt is effective?

• A. Decreased abdominal girth
• B. Increased blood pressure
• C. Clear breath sounds
• D. Decreased serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased abdominal girth. In a client with cirrhosis of the liver, a LeVeen shunt is used to treat ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. A decrease in abdominal girth indicates that the shunt is effectively draining the ascitic fluid, relieving the client's abdominal distension. Choice B, increased blood pressure, is incorrect as a LeVeen shunt is not expected to impact blood pressure. Choice C, clear breath sounds, is unrelated to the effectiveness of a LeVeen shunt in managing ascites. Choice D, decreased serum albumin, is also not a direct indicator of the shunt's effectiveness in draining ascitic fluid.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to obtain client vital signs reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats/minute. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement in this situation is to assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present. This helps to confirm the accuracy of the reported weak pulse. In this scenario, it is crucial to involve a licensed nurse to further assess the situation and provide a more comprehensive evaluation. Inaccurate pulse readings can lead to inappropriate interventions or unnecessary alarm. Instructing the UAP to count the apical pulse may not address the accuracy issue. Checking capillary refill time is not directly related to confirming the weak pulse rate. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately may be premature without confirming the accuracy of the pulse reading first.

5. The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after an accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting
• B. A 5-year-old with a broken arm
• C. A 7-year-old with minor abrasions
• D. A 9-year-old with a twisted ankle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Projectile vomiting in a child with a headache could indicate increased intracranial pressure, requiring immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D do not present with symptoms indicating potentially life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention.

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