Nursing Elites

1. A male client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), an antipsychotic medication, for the management of schizophrenia. Which client history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the first dose of this medication?

• A. History of depression
• B. History of cardiac arrhythmia
• C. History of seizures
• D. History of diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cardiac arrhythmia. Clozapine can lead to severe cardiovascular problems, making it crucial to report any history of cardiac arrhythmia to the healthcare provider before administering the medication. Choices A, C, and D are less concerning in this context as they are not directly associated with potential serious complications related to clozapine use.

2. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
• B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
• C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
• D. Perform a digital rectal examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.

3. A client who is at 10-weeks gestation calls the clinic because she has been vomiting for the past 24 hours. The nurse determines that the client has no fever. Which instructions should the nurse give to this client?

• A. Come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider
• B. Increase your fluid intake and rest at home
• C. Take over-the-counter antiemetics as needed
• D. Monitor your symptoms and call if they worsen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider. Persistent vomiting during pregnancy can lead to dehydration, which requires medical evaluation. Choice B is incorrect because solely increasing fluid intake and resting at home may not be sufficient to address the potential dehydration and underlying causes of vomiting. Choice C is not recommended without medical evaluation, as over-the-counter antiemetics should be used under healthcare provider guidance during pregnancy. Choice D is not the best option here because with persistent vomiting and risk of dehydration, immediate medical assessment is crucial to ensure the well-being of both the client and the fetus.

4. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.

5. An adult male who fell from a roof and fractured his left femur is admitted for surgical stabilization after having a soft cast applied in the emergency department. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Weak palpable distal pulses
• B. Pain at the fracture site
• C. Mild swelling of the leg
• D. Bruising around the fracture site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a fractured femur, weak palpable distal pulses can indicate compromised circulation to the lower extremity. This finding suggests a potential vascular compromise that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications like compartment syndrome or ischemia. Pain at the fracture site, mild swelling of the leg, and bruising around the fracture site are expected following such an injury and surgical stabilization, and while they should be monitored, they do not require immediate intervention like addressing compromised circulation.

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