HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery. Which of these findings requires the most immediate attention?
- A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- C. Temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit
- D. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit is slightly elevated but not immediately critical. In a postoperative patient, an elevated temperature could indicate an infection, which requires prompt attention to prevent complications. The respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate within normal ranges are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as an elevated temperature does.
2. When a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer, which of the following should take priority in planning care?
- A. Esophagitis
- B. Leukopenia
- C. Fatigue
- D. Skin irritation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Leukopenia should take priority in planning care for a client receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for bronchial cancer because it is a serious side effect that increases the risk of infection. Monitoring leukopenia is crucial to prevent complications. Esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but leukopenia poses a higher risk of life-threatening infections, requiring immediate attention.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy
- B. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises
- C. Raise the head of the bed
- D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.
4. A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). As the nurse enters the client's room, the oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute, the client's color is flushed, and his respirations are 8 per minute. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Obtain a 12-lead EKG
- B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
- C. Lower the oxygen rate
- D. Take baseline vital signs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD, it is crucial to prevent carbon dioxide retention by avoiding high oxygen levels. As the client's oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute and he is showing signs of oxygen toxicity, such as flushed color and low respirations, the nurse's priority should be to lower the oxygen rate. This action helps prevent worsening the client's condition. Obtaining an EKG, placing the client in high Fowler's position, or taking baseline vital signs are important assessments but addressing the potential oxygen toxicity takes precedence in this scenario.
5. A nurse is reviewing a client's admission laboratory findings that indicate the client has hyponatremia. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect to be below the expected reference range?
- A. Magnesium
- B. Calcium
- C. Chloride
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chloride. Chloride levels are typically low in cases of hyponatremia, as it often accompanies sodium loss. Magnesium (choice A) is not directly related to hyponatremia. Calcium (choice B) and Potassium (choice D) levels are usually not significantly affected by hyponatremia, making them less likely to be below the expected reference range in this scenario.
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