HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery. Which of these findings requires the most immediate attention?
- A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- C. Temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit
- D. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit is slightly elevated but not immediately critical. In a postoperative patient, an elevated temperature could indicate an infection, which requires prompt attention to prevent complications. The respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate within normal ranges are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as an elevated temperature does.
2. The nurse is monitoring a client who has just had a thyroidectomy. The client complains of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. Which of these findings should the nurse assess first?
- A. Calcium level
- B. Chvostek's sign
- C. Trousseau's sign
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Chvostek's sign. This is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after a thyroidectomy due to injury or removal of the parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications like tetany and laryngospasm, necessitating immediate attention. Assessing Chvostek's sign helps in early identification and management of hypocalcemia. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While assessing the calcium level is important for diagnosing hypocalcemia, the immediate concern is to identify clinical signs like Chvostek's sign, which indicate acute hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is also related to hypocalcemia but is not the most critical sign to assess first. Serum potassium level, although important for overall electrolyte balance, is not directly related to the client's current symptoms of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth.
3. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?
- A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
- B. Go get the code cart
- C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
- D. Validate the client's advanced directive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.
4. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for the administration of feedings and medications. Which nursing action is appropriate?
- A. Pulverize all medications into a powdery condition
- B. Squeeze the tube before using it to break up stagnant liquids
- C. Cleanse the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide
- D. Flush adequately with water before and after using the tube
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube, flushing the tube adequately with water before and after use is essential. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures the proper administration of feedings and medications. Choice A is incorrect because pulverizing all medications into a powdery condition is not necessary for PEG tube administration. Choice B is incorrect as squeezing the tube to break up stagnant liquids may damage the tube. Choice C is incorrect because cleansing the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide can be too harsh and lead to skin irritation.
5. A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the parents of a newborn about feeding skills. Which of the following is not an infant's feeding skill?
- A. Pushes solid objects from mouth
- B. Eats foods that are higher in fat
- C. Begins experimenting with a spoon
- D. Eats pieces of soft, cooked food
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When discussing infant feeding skills, it is important to note that eating foods higher in fat is not considered a specific feeding skill for newborns. The typical progression of feeding skills includes pushing solid objects from the mouth, eating pieces of soft, cooked food, drinking from a cup held by another person, and experimenting with a spoon. Choices A, C, and D correspond to the expected developmental sequence of feeding skills for infants, making them incorrect answers in this context.
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