the nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery which of these findings requires the most immediate attention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery. Which of these findings requires the most immediate attention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit is slightly elevated but not immediately critical. In a postoperative patient, an elevated temperature could indicate an infection, which requires prompt attention to prevent complications. The respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate within normal ranges are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as an elevated temperature does.

2. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with altered renal function, monitoring fluid balance is crucial. Weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the visits as it reflects cumulative changes in the body's fluid status. Changes in intake and output (Choice A) can provide valuable information, but weekly weight is a more direct measure of overall fluid retention or loss. Changes in mucous membranes (Choice B) and skin turgor (Choice C) can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less reliable indicators in this context.

3. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

4. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

5. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.

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