HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?
- A. Presence of blood in stools
- B. Oozing liquid stool
- C. Continuous rumbling flatulence
- D. Absence of bowel movements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.
2. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.
3. A client who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia is starting chemotherapy treatments and asks if she needs to make any dietary changes. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Use sugar-free gum if you experience a metallic taste in your mouth.
- B. Drink fluids at mealtime to prevent early satiety.
- C. Foods that are higher in fat can help nausea.
- D. Raw fruits and vegetables will be easier for your body to digest.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using sugar-free gum can help alleviate the metallic taste often experienced during chemotherapy treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking fluids at mealtime may worsen early satiety, foods higher in fat can exacerbate nausea, and raw fruits and vegetables may be harder for the body to digest and may pose a risk of infection for individuals with compromised immune systems.
4. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?
- A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, 1/2 cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk
- B. 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple
- C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice
- D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate meal plan for a client following a myocardial infarction and placed on a sodium-restricted diet should include fresh ingredients with low sodium content to promote heart health. Option D, which consists of 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange, aligns best with these requirements. Option A contains canned beets, which are typically high in sodium. Option B includes canned salmon, which may have added sodium. Option C has a bologna sandwich, which is processed and high in sodium. Therefore, Option D is the most suitable choice for a client needing a low-sodium diet after a heart attack.
5. A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). As the nurse enters the client's room, the oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute, the client's color is flushed, and his respirations are 8 per minute. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Obtain a 12-lead EKG
- B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
- C. Lower the oxygen rate
- D. Take baseline vital signs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with COPD, it is crucial to prevent carbon dioxide retention by avoiding high oxygen levels. As the client's oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute and he is showing signs of oxygen toxicity, such as flushed color and low respirations, the nurse's priority should be to lower the oxygen rate. This action helps prevent worsening the client's condition. Obtaining an EKG, placing the client in high Fowler's position, or taking baseline vital signs are important assessments but addressing the potential oxygen toxicity takes precedence in this scenario.
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