Nursing Elites

1. What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?

• A. Presence of blood in stools
• B. Oozing liquid stool
• C. Continuous rumbling flatulence
• D. Absence of bowel movements

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.

2. Although non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Constipation
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Occult bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Occult bleeding. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen are known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, including occult bleeding. Occult bleeding refers to bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract that may not be visible in the stool, leading to potential complications like anemia. Urinary incontinence (choice A) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Constipation (choice B) is also not a typical side effect associated with NSAIDs. Nystagmus (choice C) is an involuntary eye movement and is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. Therefore, the nurse should caution clients about the risk of occult bleeding when using NSAIDs for arthritis pain management.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy
• B. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises
• C. Raise the head of the bed
• D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.

4. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who is receiving chemotherapy and is showing manifestations of malnutrition. Which of the following indicates a Vitamin C deficiency?

• A. Dry, red conjunctiva
• B. Swollen, bleeding gums
• C. Inflammation of the tongue
• D. Pale, brittle nails

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen, bleeding gums are a classic sign of scurvy, which is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C. Dry, red conjunctiva, inflammation of the tongue, and pale, brittle nails are not specific manifestations of Vitamin C deficiency, making them incorrect choices.

5. When administering enteral feeding to a client via a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula

• A. Every four to six hours
• B. Continuously
• C. In a bolus
• D. Every hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering enteral feeding through a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula continuously. Continuous feeding is essential for optimal nutrient absorption and to prevent complications. Administering the formula every four to six hours, in a bolus, or every hour may lead to inadequate nutrition, improper absorption, and an increased risk of complications such as aspiration or dumping syndrome, making these choices incorrect.

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