Nursing Elites

1. The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, a weight gain of 4.4 lbs in 24 hours, and an elevated central venous pressure for a client with full-thickness burns. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Review urine output
• C. Auscultate for irregular heart rate
• D. Increase oral fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated CVP and sudden weight gain indicate fluid overload, which can strain the heart. Auscultating for an irregular heart rate is crucial as electrolyte imbalances and fluid shifts after burns can lead to cardiac complications. Monitoring the heart rate is a priority to detect any cardiac distress early. While reviewing urine output and administering diuretics are important interventions, they should come after ensuring the client's cardiac status is stable. Increasing oral fluid intake may exacerbate the fluid overload, making it an inappropriate intervention in this scenario.

2. A male client with HIV on antiretroviral therapy complains of constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the client's glucose level with a glucometer.
• B. Measure the client's weight accurately.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases.
• D. Increase the dose of saquinavir.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to check the client's glucose level with a glucometer. Constant hunger and thirst along with weight loss can be indicative of hyperglycemia, a possible side effect of saquinavir. Monitoring the client's glucose levels is crucial in this situation. Measuring the client's weight accurately (Choice B) is important for monitoring purposes but does not address the immediate concern of hunger, thirst, and weight loss. Reassuring the client that weight will stabilize as viral load decreases (Choice C) is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms described need immediate attention. Increasing the dose of saquinavir (Choice D) without assessing the client's glucose level can worsen the hyperglycemia.

3. During an assessment of a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is most likely to hear which of the following upon auscultation of the heart?

• A. S3 ventricular gallop
• B. Apical click
• C. Systolic murmur
• D. Split S2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: An S3 ventricular gallop is an abnormal heart sound commonly heard in clients with congestive heart failure. This sound is indicative of fluid overload or volume expansion in the ventricles, which is often present in heart failure. <br> Incorrect Answers: <br> B: An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. <br> C: A systolic murmur may be heard in various cardiac conditions but is not specific to congestive heart failure. <br> D: A split S2 refers to a normal heart sound caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at slightly different times during inspiration, not directly related to congestive heart failure.

4. An adult male is brought to the ER after a motorcycle accident with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which finding requires immediate attention?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears suggest a severe head injury. Projectile vomiting is a red flag symptom that may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate attention to prevent further neurological deterioration. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) typically indicates peritonitis and is not directly related to the primary head injury. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally (choice B) suggest a pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are important but not as immediately life-threatening in this context. Rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) is concerning for rib fractures or pulmonary contusion, which are also important but do not take precedence over addressing the potential increased intracranial pressure.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
• B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
• C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
• D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.

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