Nursing Elites

1. The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, a weight gain of 4.4 lbs in 24 hours, and an elevated central venous pressure for a client with full-thickness burns. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Review urine output
• C. Auscultate for irregular heart rate
• D. Increase oral fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated CVP and sudden weight gain indicate fluid overload, which can strain the heart. Auscultating for an irregular heart rate is crucial as electrolyte imbalances and fluid shifts after burns can lead to cardiac complications. Monitoring the heart rate is a priority to detect any cardiac distress early. While reviewing urine output and administering diuretics are important interventions, they should come after ensuring the client's cardiac status is stable. Increasing oral fluid intake may exacerbate the fluid overload, making it an inappropriate intervention in this scenario.

2. A toddler presenting with a history of intermittent skin rashes, hives, abdominal pain, and vomiting that occurs after ingesting milk products arrives at the clinic accompanied by the parents. Which type of testing should the nurse educate the toddler's family about?

• A. Complete blood count
• B. Lactose tolerance test
• C. Skin allergy testing
• D. Serum immunoglobulin E

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) testing. This test can help diagnose food allergies, including milk protein allergies, in toddlers presenting with symptoms like skin rashes, hives, abdominal pain, and vomiting after consuming milk products. Skin allergy testing is used for allergies but may not be suitable for this age group due to developmental factors. Lactose intolerance, which is different from a milk allergy, is assessed through a lactose tolerance test, not IgE testing. A complete blood count (CBC) would not provide specific information related to food allergies.

3. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

4. A nurse finds a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest. What modification to cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer chest compressions at a faster rate.
• B. Position a firm wedge under the client’s pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree tilt.
• C. Position the client flat with legs elevated.
• D. Call for immediate assistance and prepare for a cesarean section.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation, performing CPR requires tilting the pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree angle to relieve pressure on the vena cava, ensuring proper circulation during compressions. Administering chest compressions at a faster rate (Choice A) may not address the specific needs of a pregnant client in cardiac arrest. Positioning the client flat with legs elevated (Choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen vena cava compression. Calling for immediate assistance and preparing for a cesarean section (Choice D) should be considered only after initiating appropriate CPR modifications.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged home. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Limit fluid intake to prevent lung congestion
• B. Avoid all physical activity to conserve energy
• C. Perform pursed-lip breathing during activities
• D. Increase oxygen flow rate if shortness of breath occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pursed-lip breathing helps control breathing and improves oxygen exchange in clients with COPD. It can ease shortness of breath during activities and should be included in discharge teaching to manage symptoms. Option A is incorrect as adequate fluid intake is important for thinning mucus in COPD. Option B is wrong as physical activity, as tolerated, is beneficial for COPD patients. Option D is also incorrect because changing oxygen flow rate without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.

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