Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

2. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction. Which symptom requires immediate intervention?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Severe chest pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe chest pain is the hallmark symptom of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Chest pain in this context is often described as crushing, pressure, tightness, or heaviness. It can radiate to the arms, neck, jaw, back, or upper abdomen. Other symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting may also occur in acute myocardial infarction, but chest pain is the most critical sign requiring prompt action as it signifies inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. Shortness of breath may indicate heart failure, while nausea and vomiting can be associated with the sympathetic response to myocardial infarction. Dizziness could result from decreased cardiac output but is not as specific to myocardial infarction as severe chest pain.

4. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Describes life without purpose
• C. Exhibits mood swings
• D. Complains of insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An adolescent expressing 'life without purpose' after taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) may be indicating suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. The initial period of antidepressant treatment can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially in younger populations. Increased appetite (Choice A) is a common side effect of duloxetine and may not require immediate follow-up. Mood swings (Choice C) and insomnia (Choice D) are also possible side effects of the medication but are not as urgent as addressing suicidal ideation.

5. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?

• A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
• B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
• D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.

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